Showing posts with label Q B Engg (P Way & Work). Show all posts
Showing posts with label Q B Engg (P Way & Work). Show all posts
Q & Answer - What are the different types of Engineering surveys under taken before construction of a new line/ Explain their scope and significance.
Q.3.- What are the different types of Engineering surveys under taken before construction of a new line/ Explain their scope and significance.
Ans.- Different types of Engineering surveys –
Reconnaissance Survey -
Rough and rapid survey with or with out instrument of one or more routs for a proposed line is called Reconnaissance Survey. Approximate heights and distances are collected using instruments such as prismatic compass, hand level and range finder.
SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ON P-WAY
SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ON P-WAY
1.What are the inspection schedules to be done by PWI not in overall charge when the section is with PSC sleepers and is maintained by machines?
2.What are the inspection schedules to be done by PWI overall incharge?
3. What are the general responsibilities of PWI overall incharge ?
4. Describe briefly how a JE/II/P.Way will carry out checking of gangs working during his push trolley inspection
5. What are the schedule of inspection of Points & Crossings by incharge PWI
Objective Type Of Questions & Answer On P-Way
Question Banks - Objective Type Of Questions & Answer On P-Way
See Answer in bracket [ ]
1.Quantity of ballast/ m on concrete sleeper track with 300mm ballast cushion on Straight [ b ]
a) 1.682 M3 b) 2.158 M3.
c) 2.314 M3 d) 1.962M3
Answer - b) 2.158 M3.
2. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate abrasion value is [ c ]
a) 10 % b) 20 %
c) 30% d) 40%
Answer - c) 30%
3. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate Impact value is [ b ]
a) 10 % b) 20 %
c) 30% d) 40 %
Answer - b) 20 %
4. The permitted range of % retention on 40mm square mesh sieve in case of machine crushed ballast. [ c ]
a) 10 - 20 b) 20 - 40
c) 40 - 60 d) 60 - 80
Q Bank - Railway Track Machine (P Way)
1. Unit of Inductance is ……………………………. (Ohm/Farad/Henry)
2. Capacitor…………………………component (Active/Passive)
3. Potentiometer is a variable……………………………… (Resistance/capacitance)
4. Zener Diode is a …………………………….components (Active/Passive)
5. Relay is a ……………………………………. (Electric/Switch/Hyd. Switch)
6. Height transducer measures……………….. (Longitudinal level/Versine)
7. The term IC is used in electronics denotes.
(a) Internal Combustion
(b) Industrial Control
(c) Integrated Circuit
(d) Indian Culture
8. In machine Batteries are connected in…………………. (Series/Parallel)
9. Majority charge carriers in P-Type materials are…………
10. Minority charge carriers in N-Type materials are………………………..
11. Voltage and current rating of servo valve is……………………….
12. Voltage and current rating of Proportional valve is……………………….
(a) 24V/500mA (b) 12V/600mA (c) 20V/650mA (d) 24V/750mA
13. In CSM lowering current of proportional valve for Tamping Unit is set…………….
(a) 550mA (b) 600mA (c) 650mA (d) 750mA
14. In CSM lifting current of proportional valve for Tamping Unit is set…………….
(a) 550mA (b) 600mA (c) 650mA (d) 750mA
15. In CSM Basic/cutoff current of proportional valve for Tamping Unit is set…………….
(a) 300mA (b) 400mA (c) 625mA (d) 250mA
16. Supply voltage of Transducer are……………… (±10V, ±15V)
17. In CSM PCB for lining control is……………………………
(a) EK 349LV (b) EK 347LV (c) EK 345LV (d) EK 24V
18. In CSM PCB for Tamping Unit control is……………………………
(a) EK 349LV (b) EK 347LV (c) EK 345LV (d) EK 24V
19. In ALC stands for……………………………
20. GVA stands for……………………………
21. PCB stands for……………………………
22. Conduction in Silicon Diode starts at……………………………
(a) 3V (b) IV (c) .7V (d) 2V
23. Conduction in Germanium Diode starts at ……………………………
(a) 7V (b) .3V (c) 3V (d) 4V
24. In centre tap full wave rectifier. How many diodes are used………………
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
25. Transducer measures existing value. (True/False)
26. PCB calculates error. (True/False)
27. Encoder measures versine (True/False)
28. Current measures in……………………… (Ampear/Volt)
29. Multiplexer PCB in CSM.……………………………….. (EK28V/EK207V)
30. Hydrometer measures ………………………… (Voltage, Current, Specific Gravity)
31. Zener Diode is used in ………………………….bias (Forward/Reverse)
32. Unit of Inductor is…………………….. (Ohm/Farad/Henry)
33. Q’ stands for ………………………………… (Load output/Delayed output)
34. Height transducer measures. (Longitudinal level/Versine)
35. Potentiometer is a variable…………………………. (Resistance/capacitance)
36. In CSM PCB for Tamping Unit control is……………………………
(a) EK 16P
(b) EK 16LV
(c) EK 16SV
(d) EK 16V
37. Batteries are connected in……………………………………. (Series, Parallel)
38. Gravity of a new charge battery should be……………… (1260 to 1280gm/cm3, 1.260 to 1.280
39. No. of Input/output PCB in CSM ……………… (EK554P, EK-552P, EK553P)
40. LED is an ………………………….components. (Active/Passive)
41. Relay is a ……………………………………. (Electric/Switch/Hyd. Switch)
42. Meaning of ‘L’ in ALCis……………………… (Lining, Guiding, Measuring)
43. Maximum resistance of lining transducer can be….…………. (10KΩ, 5KΩ, 7KΩ)
44. How many tamping depth transducers fitted in UNI-4S
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
45. Lubrication is done in bearing NU 2220 on T/unit by ............ (grease/oil).
46. The symbol of DC valve used in Rail clamp circuit on 09-CSM is...
47. The quantity of servo filter used on 09-CSM is...........
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None
48. Cylinder cushion is provided in ............. cylinder on 09-CSM.
(a) Damping
(b) T/unit Up/Dn
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None
49. Pneumatic brake pressure is .......... bar. (3.8/ 8)
50. Write the correct sequence in tamping operation-
(i) Vibration
(ii) Counter Pressure
(iii) Squeezing
(iv) Tamping Unit Lowering
Answer in correct sequence
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (c) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
51. Clutches remain actuated when selector lever is even at netural position ............. in ZF gear box.
52. The reduction gear box is connected with( ZF/distributor gear box) on new CSM.
53. If two different pistons have a force ratio of 4:1, the movement ratio is.................
(a) 4:1
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:2
(d) 16:1
54. A force of 3000N is applied on exposed surface of vane in a vane motor. The perpendicular distance from line of force to motor shaft is 8 cm. compute torque in Kg m.
(a) 2.4 Kg-m
(b) 24 Kg-m
(c) 24000 Kg-m
(d) None
55. Axial piston pump is provided on 09-CSM in .......circuit.
56. The formula for calculating speed of a cylinder (in inches/minute) is .........................
57. The thickness of new brake lining is.........................mm
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 38 (d) None
58. Double check valve is provided in ............................circuit.
59. The lubrication in guide rod of tamping unit is done by..........(oil/grease).
60. Displacement of hyd. pump is defined as .......................................................
61. For T/Unit lifting- lowering ………………….……..valve is used. (Proportional/Servo)
62. Hyd. Motor converts…………… energy into …… ………energy
63. Lining chord is tensioned by ………..…..power. (hydraulic/ pneumatic)
64. The symbol of pneumatic horn……………………………
65. D. C. valve changes the …………………….of oil flow. (Pressure/ direction)
66. Replacement of return filter is done at …………….hrs.
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 500
(d) 1000
67. Pressure relief valve opens when pressure is …………..(exceeded/reduced) the setting value.
68. ……………….bar pressure is set at change pump pressure relief valve. (30/210)
69. Air system pressure is ………..Kg/cm2 in machine.
(a) 3.8
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 25
70. The qty of 35 mm dia pin in one T/unit of 09-CSM is ………………………… (8/12/16)
71. …………..valve is provided to lift the track.
(a)check psd
(b) Servo loksZ
(c) proportional iziksj”kuy
(d) None ¼dksbZ ugha½
72. Air oiler is used to ……………….. the pneumatic components.
73. Funk gear box is used to run………………….(axle/Pump).
74. What is the relation among hyd. Force(F), hyd. Pressure(P) and Area (A), write formula…..
75. ZF gear box in used to run ………………(machine/pump/both)
76. Lubrication of centre bush in T/Unit is done by ………….. (hyd. oil/grease)
77. Guages are keep………………..on crossing portion of turn out.
78. Radious of 20 curve is
(a) 875meter (b) 1750 meter (c) 1600 meter(d) 3500 meter
79 Max. recommended value of throw of switch is …………...
(a) 95mm
(b) 115mm
(c) 100mm
(d) 98mm
80. Max. No. of check rails in turn out is-
(a) 04
(b) 02
(c) 08
(d) 06
81. Switch is called a-
(a) Pair of Tougal Rail
(b) 1 pair of stock rail
(c) One stock – one tongul rail
(d) One pair of stock and one pair of tongue rail
82. In through packing – Opening of sleeper is done Min. under the sleeper-
(a) 2”
(b) 4”
(c) 3”
(d) 1”
83. Grade of 90 UTS rail is
(a) 710
(b) 880
(c) 1080
(d) 118
84. Toe load of ERC-Mark III pandrol clip is
(a) 700-900
(b) 850-1100
(c) 1100-1300
(d) 1300-1500
85. Width of shoulder ballast profile in outer side of sharp curve-
(a) 350mm
(b) 500mm
(c) 210mm
(d) 400mm
86. Ballast cushion for ‘A’ route BG track-
(a) 250mm
(b) 300mm
(c) 150mm
(d) 200mm
87. While working in summer in LWR section with tampers, Lifting in concrete sleeper in restricted by
(a) 25mm (b) 40mm (c) 50mm (d) No restriction.
88. In Deep screening – Ballast screened
(a) Cushiond ballast only (c) Only shoulder ballast
(b) Crib & shoulder ballast (d) Entire Ballast Section
89. Distance on both side of Turn out on which no grade is permitted
(a) 20mtr.. (b) 30mtr. (c) 40mtr. (d) 50mtr.
90. At Td, SEJ gap will beMh-LVªslu rkieku ij SEJ xSi gksxkA
(a) 30mm (b) 40mm (c) 50mm (d) 60mm
91. In case of Main Line derailment of Passenger train , the sound of Hooter will be
(a) Four Long (b) Three Long (c) Three Long One Short (d) Four Long One Short
92. Normal breathing length in 52 Kg. PRC sleeper BG LWR track in zone four when SD in 1660 per Km.
(a) 80meter (b) 60meter (c) 70 meter (d) 68meter
93. Thin flange wheel is declared after reducing the flange thickness more than
(a) 21mm (b) 28.5mm (c) 15mm (d) 16mm
94. Due to unburnt fuel colour of smoke is………………
95. Turbo charger runs by……………….
96. Small end of connecting rod is connected with piston by………………………….pin
97. After compression stroke,…………………………………..stroke takes place.
98. The RPM of cam shaft will be ……………………than the rpm of crank shaft.
99. 1 meter = …………….mm.
1 eh- =--------------------------------feeh100.
KTA 1150L Cummins engine is a …………………..cylinder engine.
101. The oil in the sump should be in between the…………and…..……….mark of dip stick.
102. Write firing order of 6 cylinder KTA 1150L engine 3 x 4 = 12
103 . Which lubricating oil is used in Cummins engine.
104. Write name of the types of piston rings.
105. Why there is mechanical screw provided on shutdown valve of Cummins P.T. Pump?
106. To clean dry type air cleaner, the pressure of Air should be………………………..
(a) 3.5 bar
(c) 7 bar
107. Which type of valve is used in water cooled engine is…………………….
108. What is the injection pressure of fuel.
(a) 28 Bar 28
(c) 180 bar 180
109. At what RPM turbo charged engine is to be shut down.
(a) Idle RPM
(b) 1500 RPM
(c) Full RPM
(d) 2000 RPM
110. How many mm are there in one inch.
(a) 25.4 (b) 30.8 (c) 12.0 (d) 8.0
111. What is blow bye?
(a) Leakage of combustion product from combustion chamber to sump.
(b) Leakage of oil outside.
(c) Leakage of water from radiator
(d) Overhauling procedure of engine.
112. 49 devision on main scale = 50 division on vernier scale = 49mm/Least count = ………
(a) 0.01mm (b) .02mm (c) 0.2 Inch (d) 0.02cm
113. Which engine is used in PQRS machine.
(a) VTA-1710-L Cummins engine
(b) KTA 1150 Cummins engine
(c) BF 12L 513C duets engine
(d) HA 694 Kirloskar engine
114. Satellite axle is a part of
(a) Duomatic
(b) CSM
(c) BCM
(d) both a & c
115. Oil used in Z. F. Gear box is:
(a) 15W40 (b) SS-100 (c) SS-68. (d) None of the
116. Gear Ratio in mechanical power-Transmission is:
(a) D1 x D2 (b) D1/D2 (c) D2/D1 (d) D1-D2
117. For lubrication of gears & bearings in main gear box
(a) SAE C-90 is used
(b) Grease RR3 is used
(c) Hydraulic HLP-68 is used
(d) None of above.
118. Z.F gear box is used in-
(a)Hydrostatic drive
(b) hydrodynamic drive
(c) both (nksuks)
(d) None of the above.
119. Shifter assembly is used in---------------
(a) ZF Gear Box
(b) Six Speed Gear Box
(c) Main Gear Box
(iv) both b & c
120. Oil change of Z. F. Gear Box is done at
(a) 500 Hrs.
(b) 1000 Hrs
(c) 2000 Hrs
(d) 50 Hrs
121. Control pressure of Z.F. Gear Box is:
(a) 12-14 bar
(b) 6-8 bar
(c) 18-20 bar
(d) None of the above
122. Oil for Z. F. Gear box is: -
(a) 15W40 (b) SS-100 (c) SS-68. (d) None of these
123. The max. working temperature of Z.F. Gear Box is -
(a) 1200
(b) 1000
(c) 2000
(d) 1500
124. What will happen if Z.F. Key is not put off after stopping of machine.
(a) Damage of clutch and bearing
(b) No damage to clutch & bearing
(c) No effect
(d) None of the above .
125. Reduction gear box is used during-------------
(a) Working mode
(b) traveling mode
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above.
126. Nos. of satellite unit on 3X-machine is-
(a) 1no. (b) 2 nos. (c) 3 nos. (d) None of above
127. What is the function of Tamping Units-
(a) To pack ballast under sleeper
(b) To lift track & pack ballast
(c) Slewing of track
(d) none of these.
128. In point & x-ing machine, number of tamping tools provided-
(a) 16 Nos. (b) 32 Nos. (c) 48 Nos. (d) 8 Nos.
129. In 09-3X number of tamping unit fitted—
(a) 2 Nos. (b) 1 No. (c) 3 Nos (d) 4 Nos.
130. The amplitude of vibration is-
(a) 08mm (b) 10mm (c) 12mm (d) 6mm
131. Total number of bearings required in one tamping unit of 09-3X machine is-
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 8
132. Number of tamping arms in single sleeper packing machine i.e. UNO is-
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
133. For lubrication of main bearing of UNO/DUO/CSM the oil required is-
(a) SS-68 (b) SAE C-90 (c) SS-150 (d) SS-100
134. Tool tilting cylinder used in –
(a) 08 DUO (b) 09-3X (c) CSM (d) UNIMAT
135. Vibration is generated -
(a) Eccentric shaft (b) squeezing cylinders (c) both a& b (d) None of these
136. Hooks are used to lift the track in-
(a) In point & X-ing (b) In plain track (c) Both a&b (d) None of the above
137. In Unimat-3S machine,…………is used for lifting & Lining.
(a) Servo valve (b) Proportional valve (c) D.C. valve (d) None of these
138. Third Rail lifting arrangement is given in-
(a) Unimat- 2S (b) Unimat- 4S only (c) Unimat-3S only (d) both b&c
139. In duomatic tamping unit number of bearings used-
(a) 10 Nos. (b) 12 Nos.. (c) 11 Nos. (d) None of these
140. The bearings are heated for mounting on vibration shaft-
(a) Up to 1500
(b) Up to 1000
(c) Up to 2500
(d) Up to 900
141. How many types of conveyor belts are provided on BCM-
(a) One type (b) Two type (c) Three type (d) None of the above
142. How many shovels are used on BCM RM-80 --
(a) 90 (b) 82 (c) 70 (d) 76
143. Safety device provided on waste conveyor is to protect from…………
(a) OHE mast (b) more lifting (c) infringement of trough (d) None of the above
144. How many corner rollers are provided on old BCM -
(a) 2 Nos. (b) 3 Nos. (c) 5 Nos. (d) None of the above
145. The length of cutter bar is-
(a) 1.85m (b) 1.00m (c) 2.15m (d) None of the above
146. Cutting chain speed (m/s) can be vary from-
(a) 1.8 - 2.4 (b) 1.8 - 2.7 (c) 1.8 - 3.4 (d) 1.8 -3.0
147. Grease used in axle gear box is-
(a) Bearing Grease (b) RR-2 (c) RR-3 (d) None of the above
148. The amount of hydraulic oil used in BCM axle is……….ltr.
(a) 30 (b) 45 (c)20 (d) None of the above
149. Greasing of track machines is done at……….hrs.
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) None of the above
150. IOH of machine is done at-
(a) 1000hrs (b) 2000hrs (c) 4000hrs (d) 6000hrs
151. How many powered axles are provided on FRM-80.
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 5
152. Anti-collision safety device is provided on FRM-80 on.
(a) Waste conveyor Unit
(b) Main conveyor unit
(c) Distributor belt units
(d) Excavating unit
153. Wheel diameter of FRM-80 is
154. Mechanical power transmission is achieved through
(a) Cardon Shaft (b) Alternator (c) Battery (d) All of above.
155. Z. F. stands for:
(a) Zahnrad Fabrik (b) Zagvan Freeial (c) Zackal Fruk (d) None of above
156. Z. F. is…….:
(a)Mechanically controlled (b) Electrically controlled
(c) Pneumatically Controlled (d) None of above
157. Name of Solenoids of shifter assembly is:
(a) M1 M2 M3 M4 (b) S1 S2 S3 S4 (c) R1 R2 R3 R4 (d) None of the above
158. Pressure cut off switch is operated at
(a) 2.5bar (b) 3.5bar (c) 4.0bar (d) 6.0 bar
159. In single sleeper packing machine, number of tool provided-
(a) 16 Nos. (b) 32 Nos. (c) 12 Nos. (d) 8 Nos.
160. What is the function of Lifting-lining Units-
(b) It lifts & aligns the track
(c) It does only alignment
(d) None of the above.
161. How many track lifting cylinders are used in lifting unit –
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these
162. How many disc clamp rollers are used in plain track tampers-
(a) 2 Nos. (b) 4 Nos. (c) 8 Nos. (d) None of these
163. For fastening of screens, following item is used
(a) U-clamp (b) L-clamp (c) ‘T’ head bolt (d) None of the above
164. Fastening removal is required or not in ATRT-
(a) Required (b) Not required (c) both (d) none
165. Released rails are picked up by –
(a) ATRT itself (b) Gantry (c) UTV (d) none
166. Placement of rubber pad in ATRT is done-
(a) Manually (b) Mechanics (c) both a&b (d) none
167. Rail renewal in ATRT is done-
(a) Manually (b) Mechanized (c) both (d) none
168. Removal of old rail in ATRT-
(a) Manually (b) Mechanized (c) both (d) none
169. BRH is equipped with…………….coupling-
(a) Screw (b) CBC (c) both (d) none
170. In Rake of ATRT one/two empty BFRs are placed just behind of
(a) Engine (b) Loaded BFR (c) ATRT Beam car (d) none
171. Empty BFR are attached in ATRT rake to
(a) Safe Gantry Movement
(b) To load released sleepers-
(c) Both (d) none
172. Progress of ATRT is………………….
(a) 10 Sleeper/eff. minute
(b) 21 Sleeper/eff. Minute.
(c) 11 Sleeper/eff. Minute.
(d) None
173. On one BFR of ATRT …….. stack of sleeper are loaded-
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) both
(d) none
174. Gantry Track gauge on ATRT is kept-
(a) 3400 mm (b) 1676 mm (c) 3050 mm (d) none
175. What is the standard form No.______ of Minor Penalty
(a) SF-1 (b) SF-5 (c) SF-11 (c) SF-4
176. Paternity leave is granted for
(a) 6 months (b) 15 days (c) 30days (d) 10days
177. Name of Allowance which employee gets during suspension is……………………….
178. Normal size of ballast used for IR is…………………………….
179. No. of Zonal Railways are…………….
180. No. of privilege passes allowed for railway employee in one calendar year is………
181. No. of LAP earned in every six month is………………………….
182. Employee is entitled for full pension benefit after completions of service-
(a) 33 years (b) 25 years (c) 20 years (d) 10 years
183. Color of 1st ‘A’ class pass will be ……………………….
184. The max check rail clearance in turn out is kept
(a) 44mm (b) 48mm (c) 51mm (d) 57mm
185. Which indicator the driver to get ready to reduce the speed
(a) Caution Indicator (b) Speed Indicator
(c) Stop Indicator (d) Termination Indicator
186. Name of Indicator which indicated to driver to reduce the speed as indicated
(a) Caution Indicator (b) Speed Indicator
(c) Stop Indicator (d) Termination Indicator
187. Which indicator indicates to driver to stop the train
(a) Caution Indicator (b) Speed Indicator
(c) Stop Indicator (d) Termination Indicator
188. Which indicator indicates to driver to resume normal speed.
(a) Caution Indicator (b) Speed Indicator
(c) Stop Indicator (d) Termination Indicator
189. Most suitable sleeper for LWR/CWR is-LWR/CWR
c) CST-9 sleeper d) PRC sleeper
190. Lining systems are used on ………….machines
a. CSM & 3X only
b. UNO & DUO only
c. all tamping machines only
d. all track machines
191. ……..……………. Lining method/ methods are used on tamping machine
a. 3 point lining only
b. 4 point lining only
c. 3 point & 4 point
d. single chord & double chord
192. During lining machine measures deflection w.r.t. ………. & rectify it.
a. Reference rail
b. both rails
c. no rail
d. canted rail
193. During alignment machine corrects …………
a. Slew
b. versine
c. cant
d. cross level
194. Tamping machine can work on the horizontal curve having radius up to—
a. 100 mtrs
b. 150 mtrs
c. 200 mtrs
d. 176 mtrs
195. Tamping machine can work on the vertical curve having radius up to—
a. 500 mtrs
b. 2500 mtrs
c. 3000 mtrs
d. 4000 mtrs
196. Tamping machine can normally work on max. gradient as per design
a. 1in 1000
b. 1in 100
c. 1in 150
d. 1in 400
197. Versine of curved track depends on …………….
a. radius of curve
b. measuring chord length
c. measurement method
198. Double chord lining system is used on …………… machine
a. UT Only
b. Old UNO & DUO only
c. CSM & Tamping Express
d. only CSM
199. In lining system,smoothing mode may be used in ………………..
200. Laser mode may be used in ………………..
a. 4 point lining method
b. 3 point lining method
c. 3 point & 4 point lining method both
d. None of these
JE / Works in L - 6 (15% PRQ) Exam Q Paper & Answer Dt 24-03-2023
Question Paper - JE/Works Exam Dated 24.03.2023
Previous Q Paper - GROUP "B" LDCE - AEN - 2006, 2007 & 2008
CENTRAL RAILWAY
LIMITED
DEPARTMENTAL COMPETETIVE EXAMINATION
CIVIL
ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT
Date
: 07.01.2006
( Maximum Marks 150 ) Time : 3 hours
PAPER – I – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & PROFFSSIONAL
Note
: 1) Candidate should clearly write their roll number in words also.
2) Be brief and to the point in your
answers.
3) Score out blank space in answer
sheet.
PART – I - GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE & HINDI POLICY
Note : Attempt any five Questions in Part
I, All questions carry equal
marks.
1. Write the full form of the following
abbreviations. 2 x 5 = 10
Marks.
a) GTKM b) ITKM c) GMT d) ETKM e) NTKM
2. Write the full form of the following
commonly used terms. 2 x 5 = 10 Marks.
a) GPS b) GSM c) MMS d) SMS e) WLL
3. Write the full form of the following
abbreviations. 2 x 5 = 10
Marks.
a) ASEAN b) SAARC c) GATT
d) WTO e) IMF
4. Name of the following :
2 x 5 = 10 Marks.
a)
Chief Minister of West Bengal .
b)
General Manager, North
Eastern Railway.
c)
Vice President of India
d)
Finance Minister of India
e)
Member Engineering, Railway
board.
5.
In which State are the following situated - 2
x 5 = 10 Marks.
a) Ajanta . b) Hampi. c) Kaziranga. d) Nalanda e) Sanchi.
6. a) Write all the salient features covered under Section 3(3) of
Official Language Act. 8 Marks.
QUESTION WITH ANSWER - AEN GROUP ‘B’ EXAM 2011
CENTRAL RAILWAY
L.G.S. EXAMINATION – CIVIL ENGINEERING - Date : 23.04.2011
PART
‘A’
Attempt any six
questions of the ten listed below. All questions carry equal four marks. One
mark kept for neatness.
( 6 x 4 = 24 marks
)
Q. 1. - Why is earnest money taken ?
Ans. - Earnest
money –
The Tenderer shall be required to deposit
Earnest money with the tender for the due performance with the stipulation to
keep the offer open till such date as specified in the tender. Earnest money
should be either in cash, deposit receipts, pay orders, demand draft.
The earnest money shall be 2% of estimated
tender value. The earnest money shall be rounded to the nearest Rs. 10/- .
Earnest money shall be applicable for all modes of tendering
QUESTION WITH ANSWER - AEN GROUP ‘B’ EXAM 2003
L.G.S. EXAMINATION
CIVIL ENGINEERING 01 –
02 - 2003
Q.1.- ( a ) What are the two main Grants for engineering
Department and what are detailed heads, sub heads and primary units?
( b ) Mention the
various Budgetary stages for reviews in a financial year?
Ans.- ( a ) There are Two main grants for engineering
Department –
Demand No. 4 – This demand covers
the expenditure on repairs and maintenance of permanent way and work Assets
like track, other buildings and structures.
Primary
units / minor Head -
100 Establishment in offices, 200 Maintenance of Permanent Way. 300 Maintenance
of Bridge work and Tunnels including Road over/under bridges. 400 Maintenance
of service buildings (other than staff Quarters and Welfare buildings). 500
Water supply, Sanitation and Roads (other than Colonies, staff Quarters and Welfare buildings). 600 Other repairs. 700
Special repairs pertaining to Breaches, Accidents etc. including Special
Revenue works. 900 Credits or recoveries.
Previous Q Paper LGS Examination AEN (2003 To 2007)
CENTRAL RAILWAY
L.G.S. EXAMINATION – CIVIL
ENGINEERING
Date :
01.02.2003 (
Maximum Marks 150
) Time
: 3 hours
Note :-
i. Candidates
should clearly write their Roll Number in words.
ii. Attempt
any 2 ( Two ) questions from Part ‘A’.
iii. Attempt
any 2 ( two ) questions from Part ‘B’.
iv. Attempt
Question No. 7 and any other three questions from Part ‘C’.
v. All
Questions carry equal marks except Q.No. 7 as indicated against each.
vi. Answer to
be to the point and brief.
vii. Before
depositing the answer books, blank pages to be crossed by the candidate.
PART ‘A’
Q.1.- ( a
) What are the two main Grants for engineering Department and what are detailed
heads, sub heads and primary units? (
6 )
( b )
Mention the various Budgetary stages for reviews in a financial
year? ( 6 )
Q.2.- ( a
) What are On Account Bill and Final Bill of works and what documents and
certificates are to be attached with
each? (
6 )
Previous Q Paper - GROUP "B" LDCE - ADEN - 2010 & 2012
West Central Railway
Engineering Department
Selection for the post of ADENs Gr. B ( 30%
LDCE Quota ))
Paper – I –
General Professional subject ( Civil
Engineering ), General Knowledge & Rajbhasha
Time :- 3 hours
Max. Marks : 150
Date :- 25 – 04 – 2010
Important Instructions :-
1.
Your name, roll number or
any other mark of identification must not be written in the answer paper.
2.
Answers should be brief
and contents of questions need not be repeated.
3.
Questions No. 8 should be
answered in Rajbhasha only. All other questions may be answered in Hindi or
English.
4.
Max. marks are indicated
against each question.
5.
Answer any five questions
from Part – I and two question from Part II.
6.
In case of any difference
in English & Hindi versions, contents of English version will be treated as
correct.
Previous Q Paper LGS Examination AEN (2008 To 2012)
CENTRAL RAILWAY
L.G.S.
EXAMINATION – CIVIL ENGINEERING
Date
: 19.01.2008
( Maximum Marks 150 ) Time : 3 hours
Instructions
:
i. Candidates have
option to answer either in Hindi or in English. In case of any mistake of
ambiguity in Hindi version. The English version will prevail.
ii. Candidates should
write their Roll Number, in words & numbers, only on fly leaf and should
not write his name / roll number any where else in answer sheet.
iii. This paper contains 3
parts. Attempt all parts.
iv. The blank spaces
between the answers and blank pages at the end should be crossed by the
candidates before depositing the answer scripts.
PART
‘A’
Marks
Q.1.- Write short notes on
any Five of the following - 5 x 5 = 25
marks.
i. Part I & Part II
Audit Reports.
ii. Stock Sheet.
iii. Final Bill.
iv. Non scheduled items.
v. Briefing Notes.
vi. Write Off.
vii.
Variation
statements in Contracts.
PART’B’
Q.2.- Write short notes on
any Five of the following - 5 x 5 = 25
marks.
i. Manor Penalties under
D & AR.
ii. Conduct Rules.
iii. Suspension.
iv. Productivity linked
bonus.
v. Permanent Negotiating
Machinery.
vi. Final Settlement on
superannuation.
vii.
Service
Record.
PART’C’
Q.3.- Write short notes on
any Ten of the following - 10 x 10 = 100
marks.
i. Importance of Water
Cement ratio in concrete.
ii. Various types of
small track machines.
iii. Definition of Distressed Bridge
iv. Different type of
patrollings on track.
v. Official Language
Implementation Committee.
vi. Bridge Bearings.
vii.
Pre
tamping and Post tamping works for tamping machines.
viii.
Steps
to be taken for spreading Hindi Rajbhasha on Indian Railways.
ix. Action required to
increase earnings by Engineering department on the Railway.
x. Working in a Ballast
depot.
xi. Precaution required
to be taken for avoiding buckling of track.
xii.
Actions
to improve TGI value of track.
xiii.
Painting
of girder bridges.
xiv.
License
fee and Way leave charges for Railway land.
xv.
Minimum
essential amenities for passengers on Railway stations.
***************************************
CENTRAL RAILWAY
SUPPLEMENTARY
L.G.S. EXAMINATION – CIVIL ENGINEERING
Date
: 16.02.2008 ( Maximum Marks 150 ) Time : 3 hours
Instructions
:
i. Candidates have
option to answer either in Hindi or in English. In case of any mistake of
ambiguity in Hindi version. The English version will prevail.
ii. Candidates should
write their Roll Number, in words & numbers, only on fly leaf and should
not write his name / roll number any where else in answer sheet.
iii. This paper contains 3
parts. Attempt all parts.
iv. The blank spaces
between the answers and blank pages at the end should be crossed by the
candidates before depositing the answer scripts.
PART
‘A’
Marks
Q.1.- Distinguish between
any Five of the following : 5 x 5 = 25 marks.
i. Earnest money and
Security Deposit.
ii. Final Modification
and Material Modification.
iii. General Conditions of
Contract and Special Conditions of Contract.
iv. Abstract Estimate and
Detailed Estimate.
v. Part I & Part II
Audit Reports.
vi. Special limited
tender and Open tender.
vii.
Preliminary
Works Programme and Pink Book.
PART’B’
Q.2.- Write short notes on
any Five of the following - 5 x 5 = 25
marks.
i. Procedure for creation
of additional posts for additional assets.
ii. Procedure to be adopted for change of classification of
staff from one category to other under HOER Rules.
iii. Distinguish between
dismissal and removal from service.
iv. Workmen Compensation
Act.
v. Hours of Employment
Regulation.
vi. DCRG to a Railway
Servant on superannuation.
vii.
Major
Penalties under D & AR.
PART’C’
Q.3.- Write short notes on
any Ten of the following - 10 x 10 = 100
marks.
i. Design mode operation
of Track Machines.
ii. Procedure of
converting SWR into LWR.
iii. Difference between
Catch Siding and Slip Siding.
iv. Difference between
Temporary Speed restriction and permanent speed restriction.
v. Difference between
hot weather patrolling and cold weather patrolling.
vi. Various types of
protective works to control damage to Bridge approaches by meandering rivers
during high floods.
vii.
Criteria
for manning of Level crossing and procedure to be followed for de manning of
level crossings.
viii.
Precautions
and actions to be taken for safe running of trains in case of rail / weld
fractures.
ix. Precautions and
actions to be taken for safe running trains before and during monsoon at
vulnerable locations.
x. Basic features of a
CSM and Unimate machines.
xi. Different methods of
disinfection of water. What is meant by residual chlorine.
xii.
Difference
between cant deficiency and cant excess.
xiii.
Specifications
of machine crushed ballast and are precautions to be taken while measurement
& passing of ballast.
xiv.
Section
3 ( 3 ) of Official Language Act 1963.
xv.
Various
incentive schemes for encouraging the use of official Language in offices.
**********************************
West
Central Railway
LGS
Examination – Civil Engineering
2008
Maximum
marks : 150 Time : 3 hours.
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Perusal.
ii.
Sanction.
iii.
Ex-parte.
iv.
Estimate.
v.
Supplementary.
vi.
Affidavit.
vii.
Temporary.
viii.
Responsibility.
ix.
Recognized.
x.
Explanation.
xi.
Privilege.
xii.
Noting.
xiii.
Casual.
xiv. Compassionate grounds.
xv.
Un fit.
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Part – II ( Technical Part )
Maximum
Marks – 90
Attempt
any 6 questions out of the given 9. All questions carry equal marks.
Question
1 and 2 are multiple choice questions. Write down the question number and the
correct alternative i.e. a,b,c,d in front of the question number. For instance
if the correct alternative of question no 1.2 is be then write down the answer
as – 1.2 ( b )
Question No. 1 –
1.1 -Overhauling of track should
normally be completed in –
( a ) Two years. ( b ) Ten years. ( c ) Six years. ( d )
Normally over a period of 3 to 5 years.
1.2. -Manual deep Screening of track on IR under a speed restriction of –
( a ) Stop Dead and 10 kmph. ( b ) 15 kmph. ( c ) 20 kmph ( d ) 30 kmph.
1.3. –As per IRPWM the speed of a deep screening site with machine packing
can be relaxed to normal in a minimum of – ( a ) 10 days. ( b ) 21 days. ( c ) 14 days. ( d ) 7 days.
1.4. – A CWR is a LWR which –
( a )
requires to be distressed in parts. ( b
) passes through station yards including points and crossings. ( c ) Requires special precautions for
maintenance. ( d ) None of the above.
1.5. – If the maximum rail temperature at a station is 600 C and
minimum temperature is – 50 C it will fall in – ( a ) Zone I ( b ) Zone II
( c ) Zone III ( d ) Zone IV
1.6. – If
an LWR is to be laid over a girder bridge the type of rail sleeper fastenings
to be used are – ( a ) creep resistant fastenings. ( b ) rail free fastenings. ( c ) elastic fastenings. ( d ) Rigid fastenings.
1.7.- If a turn out takes off from the inside of a mainline curve, the
cant which can be provided on the mainline will be governed by considerations
of – ( a ) cant excess. ( b ) cant deficiency. ( c )
equilibrium cant. ( d ) None of the above.
1.8. – The Assistant Engineer’s inspection of points and crossings in a
year is – ( a ) 50% of all points and crossings in his jurisdiction. ( b ) 100% of all points and crossings in
his jurisdiction.
( c )
100% of all points and crossings on running lines and 25% of all points on
other lines. ( d ) 100% of all
points and crossings on running lines and 10% of all points on other lines.
1.9. The service life in terms of total GMT of traffic carried for
considering through rail renewal on the bridge proper and in the bridge
approaches for 60 kg 90 UTS rails is –
( a ) 800
GMT ( b ) 550 GMT ( c ) 350 GMT ( d ) 400 GMT.
1.10. –
Maximum value of cant deficiency permitted on A
& B routes is –
( a ) 100
mm ( b ) 75 mm. ( c ) 50 mm. ( d ) 125 mm.
Question No. 2. –
2.1. – As per
bridge manual the maintenance of a 24.4 m. span steel girder will be done by –
( a )
Assistant Engineer of the section. (
b ) IOW of the section. ( c ) PWI
of the section. ( d ) AEN / XEN Bridge
2.2. – Hollows in masonry piers and abutments should be filled up by – ( a ) Epoxy grouting. ( b ) Gunniting. ( c ) Shotcreting. ( d ) Cement pressure grouting.
2.3. –
The elcometer is a device used to measure – ( a ) Dry film thickness of
paint. ( b ) Cover below
reinforcement. ( c ) Moisture content in
sand. ( d ) Setting time of concrete.
2.4. – While
constructing approaches for ROBs in built up area land acquisition can be
reduced by using – ( a ) Geotextiles. (
b ) Soil anchoring. ( c ) Reinforced
earth. ( d ) Soil stabilization.
2.5. – Normal reinforcement can not be used in Prestressed concrete
structures because – ( a ) It is highly corrosion prone. ( b ) The losses will neutralize
the stress induced in it. ( c ) It
dose not have adequate ductility. ( d
) It dose not have adequate fatigue strength.
2.6. –
Piles generally used for bridge construction on IR are – ( a ) Pre cast concrete piles. ( b ) Timber piles. ( c ) Cast in situ bored concrete piles. ( d ) steel pile.
2.7.- Bentonite is a material used – ( a ) To improve the slump
of concrete. ( b ) To prevent caving in of the bore
hole walls. ( c ) To
increase the strength of concrete. ( d
) None of these.
2.8. – Which is no a component of an arch bridge - ( a ) Spandrel. ( b ) Crown. ( c ) Parapet. ( d ) Stringer.
2.9.- The most reliable method for assessing the load carrying of a pile
in a given strata is – ( a ) Static formula.
( b ) Dynamic formula. ( c ) Pile
load test. ( d ) None of the above.
2.10. –
For checking the versines of turn in and turn
out curves of a turn out the length of chord used as per IRPWM is – ( a ) 3
m. ( b ) 6 m. ( c ) 11.8 m. ( d ) 20 m.
Question No. 3 – Write down the steps involved in complete realignment of a curve.
Question No. 4 – Write salient features of MEXE and RING 1.5 programme to check
the strength of arch bridge.
Question No. 5 – Write short notes on following –
i.
Action to be taken on
detection of faulty welds or rails during USFD testing.
ii.
Hot weather patrolling.
Question No. 6 – Write short notes on any two of the following –
i.
Water proofing treatment
on roofs.
ii.
Quality checks for
ensuring quality of ballast.
iii.
Compaction testing of
soils.
Question No. 7 – What are the precautions to be observed when working with tie
tamping machines before tamping, during tamping and after tamping operations.
Question No. 8 – Write down the steps involved in distressing of LWRs using tensor.
Question No. 9 – What are the tests to be conducted to ensure good quality concrete
while concreting a Prestressed concrete girder.
Part – III ( Finance and Establishment )
Maximum
marks – 45
Answer any 3 questions out of 5.
All question carry equal marks.
Question
1 is a multiple choice questions. Write down the question number and the
correct alternative i.e. a,b,c or d in front of the question number. For instance
if the correct alternative of question no 1.2 is be then write down the answer
as – 1.2 ( b )
Question No. 1 –
1.1 Demand No. 4 of the railway budget pertains to –
( a ) Repairs and maintenance of motive
power.
( b ) Operating expenses rolling stock
and equipment.
( c ) Assets – Acquisition, Construction
and Replacement.
( d ) Repairs and maintenance of
permanent way.
1.2. Use of
railway land for keeping cattle, throwing refuse etc unauthorized way leave
facilities constitutes – ( a ) Hard
encroachments.
( b ) Soft encroachment.
( c ) Do not
form an encroachment at all.
( d ) None of these.
1.3. RTI act
was promulgated in – ( a ) 1996 ( b )
2000 ( c ) 2005 ( d ) 1990
1.4. Recruitment
of group D staff will hence forth be done by – ( a ) Railway Board. ( b ) Railway Recruitment Board.
( c ) PWI in case
of engineering department. ( d )
Recruitment cell under DyCPO ( recruitment )
1.5. Class I
officers joining the Indian railway Service of Electrical Engineers under go
Centralized training at - ( a ) Nasik
1.6. Direct Recruitment to Group C for Kota division is done by railway recruitment board located
at - ( a ) Kota ( b ) Ajmer ( c ) Bhopal ( d ) Jabalpur
1.7. The
earnest money for a tender costing 50 lacks will be – ( a ) 2 Lacks. ( b ) 1 Lack. ( c ) 3 Lacks. ( d ) 1.5 Lacks.
1.8. Group A
and B officers of IR are entitled to –
(
a ) 6 sets of privilege passes and 4 sets of PTOs.
(
b ) 6 sets of privilege passes and 3 sets of PTOs.
(
c ) 6 sets of privilege passes and 6 sets of PTOs.
(
d ) 3 sets of privilege passes and 3 sets of PTOs.
1.9. An
employee can avail of leave encashment to the extent of amount of LAP to his
credit subject to a maximum of - ( a )
210 days. ( b ) 300 days. ( c ) 240 days. ( d ) none of the these.
1.10. SRSF has been
set up to – ( a ) Improve
passenger amenities at stations.
( b ) Improve staff amenities in colonies. ( c ) Improvement of railway running
rooms. ( d ) To wipe out arrears
of replacement of safety related assets on IR.
Question No. 2 – Write
short notes on any two of the following –
i. Digitisation of land plans.
ii. Jatropha plantation.
iii. Earnings from land resources.
Question No. 3 – Write
short notes on any two of the following –
iv. Touch and feel works.
v. Provision for extension of completion period of a contract under
GCC.
vi. Open, limited and single tender.
Question
No. 4 – What are the different plan heads
under demand No. 16 of the budget relevant to the engineering department.
Question
No. 5 – List
the various types of major penalties and write down the steps to be followed
for imposing a major penalty.
*****************************
Southern
Railway
LGS
Examination – Civil Engineering
Supplementary
Examination
Date
: 20.07.2008
( Maximum Marks 150 ) Time : 3 hours
Notes
:
i. Answer all three
parts A, B, and C
ii. Indicate Part reference
and Question reference in your answers.
iii. Write legibly and
sketch neatly.
PART ‘A’ : Answer any
Ten questions
10 x 2 = 20 marks
- Define equilibrium super elevation.
- Define distressed bridge.
- Define accommodation works.
- Define Fineness modulus.
- Define Plasticity index.
- Define symmetrical split.
- Define track modulus.
- Explain in short Q50 and Q100.
- Explain in short special disability leave.
- Prescribed language for communication between Kerala Government and
Southern Railway under Official Language Policy.
- Explain in short Urgency Certificate.
- Explain in short Controlled Concrete.
PART ‘B’ : Answer any
Ten questions
10 x 3 = 30 marks
- Why
extra clearance are required in curves.
- Classification
of rail defects – List out and explain in sort.
- Coning
of wheals – why provided.
- Engineering
Indicators at unmanned level crossings – List out the provisions.
- Index
Plan and Index section - Explain in short.
- Metallising
of bridge girders – basic concepts.
- Check
rails and guard rails - basic concepts on provisions.
- Distinguish
between Substitute and Casual Labour in railway Service.
- PNM -
basic concepts
- Functions
of TOLIC under Official Language Implementation.
- Eligibility
criteria in works tenders – how specified.
- No
claim and no due certificates - basic concepts.
PART ‘C’ : Answer any
Ten questions
10 x 10 = 100 marks
- Explain in detail the modus operandi with sketch for rebuilding of
single span masonry arch bridge with single span girder bridge.
- Explain in detail with sketches the regirdering of multi span deck
type girders of bridge by gantry method.
- Explain the procedure for realignment of curve.
- What are the advantages and disadvantages of concrete sleepers.
- Explain in detail with sketches the track protection at work site
for works of short duration and long duration.
- List out the different types of water treatment and explain any one
method in detail with sketch.
- What are the Employer’s liabilities for compensation under Workmen’s
compensation Act.
- List out the various surveys conducted for construction Projects and
explain in detail any two types of
surveys.
- Explain
the procedure for processing variations and vitiation in works contracts.
- What are the prescribed languages for communication between Central
and State Governments under Official Language Policy. What are the Policy
instructions on notings in Central Government Offices.
- Draw a quantity schedule and work out rate analysis for CTR work of
replacing 90 R rail CST9 sleeper
track with 52 kg rail concrete sleeper track. Make your own
reasonable assumptions.
- List out the different types of platform surfacing adopted in
Southern Railway and explain in detail construction procedure with
specifications for any two types.
*********************************************
Southern
Railway
LGS
Examination – Civil Engineering
Date
: 10.01.2010
( Maximum Marks 150 ) Time : 3 hours
Notes
:
i. Answer all three
parts A, B, and C
ii. Indicate Part
reference and Question reference in your answersCorrectly.
iii. Write legibly and
sketch neatly.
PART ‘A’ : Answer all
questions 10 x 2 = 20 marks
1.
Minimum Formation width of BG bank is ………………….
2.
R in 90 R track refers to
…………………………………….
3.
M in M+7 track refers to
…………………………………….
4.
CC in CC+8+2 route refers to
………………………………
5.
P in SPT of soil refers to
…………………………………….
6.
Q in Qf flood refers
to …………………………………….
7.
D in DS8 stores refers to
…………………………………….
8.
PU 32 expenditure refers to
…………………………………
9.
Minimum permitted guard rail clearance in bridge is
……………………….
10.
Minimum permitted check rail clearance on curve is ……………………….
PART ‘B’ : Answer in
short any Six questions 6
x 5 = 30 marks
- State the basic purpose of providing check rail and list the
locations whom check rails are provided.
- Explain the purpose of provision of sand hump important
constituents.
- Explain the provision of eligibility criteria in works tenders.
- Define residual chlorine and explain how it is tested.
- State the advantages of metallising of girders and where it is
preferred.
- What are accommodation works . List the typical works.
- List the surveys under taken for the Railway projects.
- Write short notes on Permanent Negotiating Machinery ( PNM )
PART ‘C’ : Answer any
Five questions
5 x 20 = 100 marks
Sketch neatly typical well foundation for bridge and
explain in detail how it is constructed.
Explain how works are tendered and awarded in
Engineering department.
Explain various steps taken by southern Railway in
implementing Official Language Policy.
What privileges are you entitled under Pass Rules.
Explain in detail the procedure for removal of
encroachments on Railway land.
CENTRAL RAILWAY
L.G.S. EXAMINATION – CIVIL ENGINEERING
Date
: 23.04.2011
( Maximum Marks 150 ) Time : 3 hours
Instructions
:
1.
Candidates
have option to answer either in Hindi or in English. In case of any mistake of
ambiguity in Hindi version. The English version will prevail.
2.
Candidates
should not write their name, Roll Number, initials, designation, signature,
address or any other identification mark any where on the answer paper. As this
will disqualify them for the selection. They should not draw any symbol sign or
write any such thing as SHRI GANESHAYA NAMAHA, HARI OM, OM ,
SHRI SWAMI SAMARTH etc, on their answer papers. They should not use different
coloured pens other than blue or black pens for writing the examination.
3.
This
paper contains Three parts, viz. A, B &c. The instructions for each section
are indicated at the beginning of the section. Attempt all parts.
4.
The
blank spaces between the answers and blank pages at the end should be crossed
by the candidates before depositing the answer scripts.
5.
Answer
should be brief & to the point.
PART
‘A’
Attempt any six
questions of the ten listed below. All questions carry equal four marks. One
mark kept for neatness.
( 6 x 4 = 24 marks )
1. Why is earnest money taken ?
2. When is supplementary estimate prepared?
3. What is Operating ratio?
4. What do you understand by departmental charges as defined in Para 1137 of engineering code?
5. Indicate the procedure to sanction office building costing 42 Lakhs.
6. What are the consequences to after termination of contract.
7. What do you understand by primary unit of expenditure?
8. State the difference between stock and non stock item?
9. What is the importance of Pink book in railway working.
10. What is the object of including arbitration clause in contract?
Part “ B “
Write
short notes on any six. All questions carry equal four marks. One mark
kept for neatness.
( 6 x 4 = 24 marks )
1.
Compassionate Appointment
2.
Overtime Allowance
3.
Commutation of pension
4.
Filling posts of Artisans
5.
House Building
6.
Major Penalties
7.
Vacancy Bank
8.
Voluntary Retirement
9.
Staff Benefit Fund
10. Night Duty Allowance
Part
‘C’
Attempt any ten
questions. All
questions carry equal ten marks.
- Draw
a hand sketch showing position of engineering indicators in case of multi
speed restrictions (Speed increasing in direction of train)
- What
are important points to be kept in mind to maintain switches in good
condition?
- What
precautions are to be taken during deep screening by BCM, followed by
tamping machine & DTS?
4. a) What
is the difference between insulated joint and glued insulated joint? ( 5 marks
)
b) What is the purpose of providing structure
bonds in electrified section? ( 5 marks )
5. Indicate the difference between any four- 4 X 2.5 = 10 marks.
a) Relaxation of speed by
manual & machine packing.
b) Nominal mix and design mix
of concrete
c) IMR & OBS defects
d) Bracings & Stiffeners (
Related to girder bridges)
e) Switch Expansion joint &
Buffer rails
f) Interlocked & non
interlocked gates.
6. Indicate in brief essential components of a water treatment plant to
treat water from a river source. Purpose of each should also be given. (No
sketches needed)
7. हिंदी का कार्यसाधक ज्ञान प्राप्त
करने की क्या शर्तें हैं?
8. Indicate scheme &
precautions for executing work of constructing new foot over bridge in
electrified section. ( no sketches needed)
9. Indicate procedure
& measures for obtaining best results from design mode tamping.
10. As an ADEN
11. List out various members of a through type steel
bridge. Explain working & maintenance of Rocker & Roller bearing. ( 6 + 4 = 10 marks )
12. State in brief
various quality control measures for executing earth work ( including
blanketing layer )
13. Explain the
precaution & procedure for replacing an old 1 : 12 turnout by new concrete
sleeper layout using T – 28 Machine. ( In a busy electrified section ).
14.Explain the technical
aspects of any two of the following.
( a ) Transition curve and Cant Gradient.
( b ) Painting specification for steel
bridges.
( c ) Abrasion Value & Impact Value of
ballast sample.
( d ) Use of Rail tensors.
15. Indicate the various
stages involved in acquiring land for a new line project.
*****************************************
West Central Railway
Engineering Department
Selection for the post of ADENs Group – ‘B’ ( 70% LGS quota )
Time : 3 hours 31 – 03 -
2012
Maximum marks : 150
Important Instructions :
- Attempt any 5questios from section – ‘A’ and any 3 questions from
section –‘B’. Section – ‘C’ is compulsory.
- Marks allotted to questions have been indicated against each.
- In case of any discrepancy between English and Hindi versions,
contents of English version to be treated as correct.
- No correction / alteration is allowed in answering Question no. 7. In
case any correction / alteration is made then the answer will not be
evaluated.
Section – ‘A’
1. ( a ) An emergency crossover has to be laid between two
parallel running tracks on a 20 curve with track center of 5.10 meters at one
end of a station. Draw a suitable sketch and indicate the type of turnouts
which should be used. Also describe the procedure of laying the crossover so
that there should not be any kink between back of crossing of the two
turnouts.
( 15 )
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