OMR BASED SELECTION FOR THE POST OF
STAFF & WELFARE INSPECTOR (PAY LEVEL-06) AGAINST 20% LDCE QUOTA
DATE OF EXAMINATION: 20.02.2022
Maximum Morks: 100 Duration: 02 hours
Instructions to the candidates
Please go through the following instructions carefully before the start of the exam and contact the invigilator if ony of the instructions is not clear.
1. Please ensure you have received the question paper in the language you have opted for in your application. In case of any discrepancy in meaning of English and other language in a question, the context given in the English language will be final. Choose the most suitable answer for each question.
2. Kindly confirm the question paper is printed completely with all 110 questions. Optional 10 Hindi questions included in Question Booklet i.e. 100+10=Total 110 Questions.
3. You are required to attempt only 100 questions and in case of any excess answers only first 100 questions will be evaluated.
4. Please note that there shall be negative marking for wrong answers and one third of the mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
5. No corrections of any type will be permitted and in case any corrections such as cutting, overwriting, erasing, scoring off a ticked answer in multiple-choice and ticking another answer, modifying the answer in any way are made, that answer shall not be evaluated.
6. Candidates must ensure Roll No., name, designation, station and other particulars as specified may be written by the candidates only at the appropriate places provided for the purpose on the answer paper/OMR Sheet and not anywhere else which will be treated as unfair means and such of those answer papers will not be evaluated and treated as disqualified.
7. No electronic gadgets are permitted inside the examination hall and the same may be placed under safe custody of the invigilator till completion of examination and permission is granted by invigilating officer to leave the premises.
8. Please note you are not allowed to leave the exam hall till completion of examination except with prior permission of the Invigilator.
1. An employee can be considered for MACPS provided he / she got minimum ........... grading in the last 3 years
A. Very Good
B. Good
C. Average
D. Outstanding
2. Including dependents, how many family members can be Included in the privilege pass?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. No limit
3. What is the procedure for dealing with vacant surplus posts having DR quota?
B. Transfer to other Units.
C. No action required
D. None of the above
4. Who is the competent authority to approve 3rd chance In sultability to ward / widow for appointment on compassionate grounds
A. GM
B. DRM
C. PCPO
D. AGM
5. The rate of HRA as a percentage of Basic Pay (+NPA where applicable) at Y Class City Is ........
Α. 24%
B.8%
C. 16%
D. 10%
6. Saloon attendants are classified as .......... under HOER
A. Continuous
B. Essentially intermittent
C. Intensive
D. None
7. The duration of pre-selection coaching for SC/ST candidates for selection to higher posts should be not less than
A. One Week
B. 3 to 4 weeks
C. 4 to 6 weeks
D. 8 Weeks
8. Find the incorrect match.
A. Minimum Wages Act: 1948
B. Maternity Benefits Act: 1961
C. Payment of Bonus Act: 1971
D. The Trade Unions Act: 1926
9. Which of the following statements is/ are correct about the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961?
i. It is applicable in just government offices.
ii. It is applicable in only those offices which have more than 10 employees'
iii. This Act entitles pregnant women employees for paid maternity leave.
A. Only i, iii
B. Only ii, iii
C. Only ii
D. Only i,ii
10. Which article of the Indian Constitution gives freedom to form a trade Union?
A. Article 23
B. Article 19(1)(c)
C. Article 24
D. Article 14
11. Trip Allowance is paid to running staff working on ....... trains for completion of trips..
A. High Speed trains
B. Goods trains
C. ART
D. Special trains
12. The Hostel Subsidy is paid at the rate of
A. ₹ 3,750
B. ₹ 4,500
C. ₹ 6,750
D. ₹ 2,700
Note - from January 1, 2024, the education allowance is set at Rs 2,812.5 per child per month, and the hostel subsidy at Rs 8,437.5 per child per month.
13. Which Master Circular No. dealt with the subject of 'Holidays'?
A. 17
B. 47
C. 7
D. 45
14. Who had formulated the Employees Provident Fund Scheme?
A. Medical Benefit Council
B. ESIC
C. The State Government
D. The Central Government
15. Under Factories Act-1948, How many employees qualify for provisioning of first ald boxes?
A. 20
B. 250
C. 100
D. 150
16. Which section of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, provides that no employer shall knowingly employ a woman in any establishment during the six weeks Immediately following the day of her delivery, miscarriage or medical termination of pregnancy?
A. Section 5
B. Section 2
C. Section 3 (a)
D. Section 4
17. What duration of existence is needed as per The Trade Union Act, 1926 before the making of an application for its registration
A. 01 Year
B.03 Months
C. 06 Months
D. No such duration required
18. Risk and Hardship Allowance granted to Track Maintainers is ₹ .......... per month for level-8 & below.
A. ₹ 2,100
B. ₹1,100
C. ₹ 1,700
D. ₹ 2,700
19. The person who mediates and promote the settlement of industrial dispute is called as
A. Negotiation officer
B. Conciliation officer
C. Welfare Officer
D. Establishment officer
20. Manager (CWM in Workshops) of every factory should sent a annual report to the Inspectorate of factories containing details like numbers of workers employed, leave with wages, safety officers ,ambulance room, canteen, shelter, accidents in form no ........ on or before 31 January
A. Form No: 21
B. Form No: 22
C. Form No: 25-a
D. Form No: 25-b
21. The employer's share of contribution under the ESI Act is
A. 12%
B. 8.33%
C. 1.75%
D. 4.75%
22. Which of the following purpose does not entitle an employee to take advance from the Railway Services Provident Fund
A. Home appliance purchase
B. Ancestral House Renovation
C. Self-Sickness
D. Spouse Sickness
23. The maximum age limit for NPS contribution is
A. 60 years
B. 65 Years
C. 75 Years
D. No limit
24. The occupier has to submit the document on or before ..... of every year to renewal of a license for a factory.
A. 31 March of every year
B. 31 December of every year
C. 31 October of every year
D. 30th April of every year
25. Night duty should not normally be performed by the running staff for more than ....... nights at a stretch.
A. 06
B. 08
C. 10
D. 12
26. Under which section of RTI Act, there shall be no obligation to give Information by Central Public Information Officer.
A. Sec 06
B. Sec 08
C. Sec 03
D. Sec 18
27. Under Factories Act-1948, the term 'Sabbatical' is connected with
A. Paid leave for study
B. Paternity leave
C. Maternity leave
D. Quarantine leave
28. If the factory employs more than 1000 Workers, they should appoint a qualified out the prescribed duties to carry
A. Safety Officer
B. Welfare Officer
C. Security Officer
D. None of the above
29. Section 41-G of the Factories Act 1948 says about
A. Fencing of Machineries.
B. Facing of Machineries
C. Work on near machinery in motion
D. Participation in safety management
30. The labour ministry had envisaged Implementing the four codes on Industrial relations, wages, social security and occupational health safety & working conditions from April 1, 2022. These four labour codes will rationalize ....... central labour laws.
A. 04
B. 14
C. 34
D. 44
31. Short-Off is the period of ............ rest between two rostered duties of Rallway servant under continuous classification.
A. Less than 12 hours
B. Less than 10 hours
C. Less than 16 hours
D. Less than 24 hours
32. In Railways, Health Educators and Family planning Field workers are classified as .......
A. Excluded
B. Intensive
C. Continuous
D. None
33. Averaging period for purpose of calculating overtime in respect of continuous staff is ......
A. Daily
B. Bi-Weekly
C. Weekly
D. Monthly
34. As per IREC-551, an adoptive mother on the rallways with less than two surviving children may be granted leave of ........ days as 'Child Adoption Leave' on adoption of a child up to one year of age, on the lines of maternity leave admissible to natural mothers.
A. 180
C.120
B. 150
D. 135
35. Foreign Contribution (Acceptance or Retention of Gifts or Presentations) Rules, 2012 Sub-rule (31 of Rule 13 In any other case, a Group-C servant shall not accept any gift without the sanction of the Government, If the value exceeds-
A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.2000
C.Rs.3000
D. Rs.5000
36.Base Year for Consumer Price Index of Industrial Workers (Labour Index) Including Clause 46A of GCC deals with the price variation clause in contracts was recently changed to .......
A. 2021
B. 2018
C. 2016
D. 2020
37. Dearness Allowance payable to Indian Railway employees was enhanced from the existing rate of 17% to ......... of the Basic Pay with effect from 1st July, 2021
A. 28
B. 25
C. 32
D. 22
38. Maximum amount that can be reimbursed towards purchase of Pulse Oximeter by Railway Medical beneficiaries suffering from COVID-19 is ........
A. ₹1500
B. ₹2000
C. ₹1200
D. No such limit
39. Minimum Family Pension in VII CPC is .....
A. ₹3500
B. ₹9000
C. ₹4500
D. ₹1000
40. UMID stands for
A. Unique Medical Information Card
B. Universal Medical Identity Card
C. Unified Medical Identity Card
D. Unique Medical Identity Card
41. For how many days maximum TA is payable?
A. 30 days
B. 120 days
C. 180 days
D. 90 days
42. Validity of year ending passes in any year should be upto
A. 31 December of that year
B. 31 May of next year
C. 31 December of next year
D. 31 March of next year
43. CPGRAMS stands for
A. Central Public Grievances Record and Monitoring System
B. Central Public Grievances Rules and Monitoring System
C. Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System
D. Central Processing General Rules and Monitoring System
44. What is the maximum amount of continuous leave a Railway employee can take including all types of leave?
A. 5 Yrs
B. 10 Yrs
C. 365 days
D. 180 Days
45. Under which Rule of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968, an employee can be removed/ dismissed from service without conducting inquiry.
A. Rule 12
B. Rule 13
C. Rule 14
D. Rule 11
46. What is the abbreviation of RESS?
A. Retired Employees Self Service
B. Railway Employees Self Service
C. Railway Employee Syam Seva
D. None
47. House Rent Allowance is admissible up ......... to days during all kinds of leave on Full Rate.
A. 180 days
B. 240 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
48. ....... deals with Staff Benefit Fund
A. Ch.18, IREC-I
B. Ch.8, IREC-I
C. Ch.3, IREC-4
D. Ch.8, IREM-1
49. The National Holiday Allowance paid to an employee working in Level-7 of Pay Matrix is
A. Rs. 730 per day
B. Rs. 530 per day
C. Rs. 830 per day
D. Rs. 630 per day.
50. Chapter-XVII of IREM Vol II deals with
A. Casual labour
B. Promotions.
C. Railway quarters and Recovery of rent
D. Change in name
51. An employee who is dismissed or removed from service is permitted to retain Railway Quarters for a period of. .......
A. One month
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
52. In Division, the least authority for sanction of CTG is
A. Asst/Jr Scale
B. Senior Scale
C. JAG
D. SAG
53. The Colour Scheme of the strip in UMID card for the Beneficiary of Serving Railway employee is
A. Blue strip at Top and Yellow strip at Bottom
B. Green strip at Top and Yellow strip at Bottom
C. Green strip at Top and Bottom
D. Blue strip at Top and Bottom
54. As per RS (D&A) Rules, 1968, is the highest penalty
A. Removal
B. CR
C. Censure
D. Dismissal
55. No recovery shall be made if the pension finally sanctioned is less than the provisional pension,
A. True
B. Full recovery will be done
C. Depends on qualifying service
D. 50% will be recovered
56. In Model SOP 2018, Part F, Sub-Part-II (Non-Gaz), Estt Matters item No......... provision of issue of 'No Objection Certificate' (NOC) for obtaining passport. deals with the
A. 46
B.47
C. 50
D. 48
57. Frequency of PNM at Divisional level meeting for each recognized union is
A. Once in 1 month
B. Once in 3 months
C. Once in 2 months
D. Once in 4 months
58. The Non-Practising Allowance is pald at the rate of of Basic Pay
A. 15%
B. 25%
C. 20%
D. 18%
59. For transfer within the same station where no change of residence is involved, TA Is pald of basic pay
A. 1/3rd
B. 80%
C. 20%
D. Not Admissible
60. 'Connection with the Press or other media' is explained in Rule Rules, 1966. of RS (Conduct)
A. Rule 8
B. Rule 2
C. Rule 3
D. Rule 5
61. Consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs is dealt with in Rule No. Rules, 1966 of RS (Conduct)
A. Rule 21
B. Rule 20
C. Rule 13
D. Rule 22
62. Pay fixation on promotion is regulated by RS (RP) Rule, 2016?
A. Rule 13
B. Rule 111
C. Rule 10
D. Rule 14
63. Ephemeral files are destroyed as soon as they are ......... old.
A. 06 Months
B. 01 Year
C. 03 Years
D. 05 Years
64. Works Programme is prepared under Demand No.
A. 10
B. 16
C. 12
D. 01
65. CG appointee to a post of Technician-III with only SSC qualification should undergo_months of training
A. 06 Months
B. 12 Months
C. 15 Months
D. 36 Months
66. On Technical resignation from railway service by a regular Railway employee, his/her lien will be maintained in parent cadre for a period of ....... months
A. 12 Months
B. 24 Months
C. 06 Months
D. 18 Months
67. Expenditure under Staff Welfare & Amenities shall be charged to
A. Demand No-32
B. Demand No-28
C. Demand No-11
D. Demand No-65
68. If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is more than 2,000 Kms., the joining time admissible is ......
A. 20 Days
B. 15 Days
C. 30 Days
D. 12 Days
69. The authority competent to take a decision in regard to the request for allotment of and for construction of branch offices of a recognized unlon in any division is
A. Sr.DEN
B. GM
C. DRM
D. Sr.DPO
70. During surrender of posts, the portion of mean value credited to Divisional Vacancy Bank on surrender of post is .....
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
71. Canons of financial propriety is incorporated in .......
A. Accounts Manual
B. Finance Code
C. Establishment Code
D. Model SOP
72. A student has to secure 40% of marks to pass an examination. He gets only 45 marks and fails by 5 marks. The maximum mark is
A 120
B. 125
C. 150
D. 130
73. Which of these should be avoided in good report writing about a case?
A. Slang
B. Dignified words
C. Brevity
D. Unity
74. An ALP is restricted to consume alcohol before .......... of commencement of duty.
A. 06 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 08 hours
75. Where we can file a Special Leave Petition
A. High Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Central Administrative Tribunal
D. Civil Court
76. Reimbursement of cost of spectacles available once in three years for the aged below, ......
A. 40 years
B. 45 years
C. 50 years
D. None of the above
77. Who among the following is not a dependent under the Employee's compensation Act, 1923?
A. A minor/widowed sister
B. A daughter in law
C. A minor illegitimate son
D. A widower
78. In case of retired employees for drawl of CTG in situations where the personal effects were moved beyond one year and up to 02 years can be sanctioned by
A. AGM
B. PCPO
C. DRM
D. JAG officer
79. Prohibition of Sexual Harassment of women at work place is dealt under Rule ........ of RS (Conduct) Rules, 1966.
A. Rule 3-C
B. Rule 3-A
C. Rule 3-B
D. Rule 3-D
80. Unless it is specified, all railway servants in Level-1 To be eligible for promotion to Level-2 posts in all department should have put in a minimum of ..... years regular service
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of the above
81. Funeral advance paid to any family member of a deceased employee can be deducted from settlement benefits.
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, only for Pay level 2 and above
D. None of the above
82. Which of the Standard Form is required to be used for issuing the order of Deemed Suspension?
A. SF-1
B. SF-4
C. SF-3
D. SF-2
83. The Compensation under the employees compensation act is payable to the widow ....
A. Cash is given by employer
B. Payment through Commissioner of the Act
C. Deposited in bank by employer
D. None of the above
84. Crèche is provided in the every factory for use of the children of female workers for children under the age of ---
A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 5 years
85. How many days Special CL is granted to Female employees when her husband undergoes sterilization operation?
A. 14 days
B. 15 days
C. 7 days
D. 01 day
86. For deciding classification/ duty hours of Gatekeepers at Level Crossing Gates (Engineering), Zonal Railways is required to conduct, .........
A. Factual Job Analysis
B. Rough Assessment method
C. Method of issuance of certificate by Executive Officer
D. Representative method
87. If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of retirement, then, who is competent to sign the charge sheet?
(A) General Manager
(B) Disciplinary authority
(C) President of India.
(D) Railway Board
88. Every offence under the sexual harassment of women at workplace (prevention, prohibition and redressal) Act, shall be .......
(A) Cognizable
(B) Non-Cognizable
(C) Bail able
(D) Non-bail able
89. In Model SOP 2018, Part F, Sub-Part-II (Non-Gazetted), Establishment Matters, the power to accept voluntary retirement including the waiver of notice period, lies with?
(A) DRM
(B) GM
(C) PHOD
(D) None of the above
90. Daily Allowance to Railway employees on Tour under 7th CPC level 6 to 8 is Rs. ..... Traveling Allowance. on account of
(A) 1000
(B) 800
(C) 750
(D) 500
91. The review of an order of suspension shall be done by the authority which is competent within ........ under RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.
(A) 60 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 90 days
92. Secondary Family Pension is eligible after demise of the Railway Servant/his spouse to
(A) Married son / daughter after 35 yrs. of age
(B) Married son/daughter after 21 yrs. of age
(C) Married daughter/ widowed/ divorced daughter who are remarried
(D) widowed/divorced daughter in the order to their date of birth when parents are alive
93. Employee is eligible for pension after minimum ....... years of continuous service
(A) 5 yrs.
(B) 33 yrs.
(C) 20 yrs.
(D) 10 yrs.
94. Which Allowance is revised in accordance with the increase in All India Average Consumer price Index number for industrial workers twice in a year?
(A) Transport Allowance
(B) House Rent Allowance
(C) Officiating Allowance
(D) Dearness Allowance
95. In case of default in payment of wages by the contractor the responsibility of payment of wages lies with the ........ under the Act.
(A) Principal Employer
(B) Inspectors under the act.
(C) State government
(D) None of the above
96. The Railway servants working in Workshops are governed by -----
(A) HOER rules
(B) Factory's Act 1948
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above
97. Conversion of one kind of leave to another is possible when:
(A) At the written request of the employee to sanctioning authority
(B) Within 30 days of joining duty after expiry of leave
(C) No conversion of already sanctioned leave is permissible
(D) Both A&B
98. Leave Reserve for all Running staff should be
(A) 25% to 30%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 15% to 30%
(D) 162/3% to 30%
99. Incentive under incentive bonus scheme is not payable to
(A) Workers
(B) supervisors
(C) Apprentice
(D) None of the above
100. Claims for reimbursement of medical charges should be preferred within.... Months from the date of completion of treatment;
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 18 months
101. Which sub-committee of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language inspects Railway offices?
(A) Second sub Committee
(B) Third sub Committee
(C) First sub Committee.
(D) None of the above
102. Which article of the Constitution of India mentions about the language to be used in the Legislatura?
(A) Article 120
(B) Article-210
(C) Article-343
(D) Article 345
103. Which article of the Constitution of India mentions the official language or official languages of the state?
(A) Article 343
(B) Article-344
(C) Article -345
(D) Article- 346
104. Which Schedule of the Constitution mentions the official languages of the state?
(A) Seventh
(B) Eighth
(C) Ninth
(D) Tenth
105. Official Language Rules do not apply to which state of India?
(A) Jammu-Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
106. How many languages have been recognized in the 8th schedule of the constitution so far?
(A) 15
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 24
107. Who was the Chairman of the First Official Language Commission constituted in 1955?
(A) Sri Govind Vallabh Pant
(B) Sri B.G. Kher
(C) Sri Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D)Sri Om Mehtha
108. Who is the Chairman of Zonal Railways Official Language Implementation Committee?
(A) MRA
(B) PCPO
(C) GM
(D) Chairman, Railway Board
109. Under which rule of the Official Language Act 1976, all name plates, sign boards, letterheads, inscriptions on envelopes, other items of stationery used in any central government office should be in Hindi and English?
(A) Rule 11(1)
(B) Rule 11 (3)
(C) Rule 11 (2)
(D) None of the above
110. When is Hindi Day celebrated every year in the Central Government Offices?
(A) 12 September
(B) 14 September
(C) 12 January
(D)14 January
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