Q 1- An Arbitral Award made under Part-I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be considered as a_______.
(a) Domestic Award
(b) Foreign Award
(c) General Award
(d) International Award
Q2- Arbitral proceedings commence_______.
(a) On the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent.
(b) On the date when the respondent gives consent to the appointment of the arbitrator.
(c) On the date when the arbitrator issues notice to the parties.
(d) On the date when the statement of claims and written submission of defence is made.
Q3- Arbitral award ______.
(a) Must be connected with the subject - matter of the dispute arbitrated
(b) Must be founded on principle of trust
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) only (a) is correct.
Q4- Private Arbitration is also described as.
(a) Integral arbitration
(b) Consensual arbitration
(c) Domestic arbitration
(d) None of the abobe
Q5- Statutory arbitration is ______.
(a) Imposed on the parties by operation of law
(b) A compulsory arbiration
(c) Where consent of the parties is not necessary
(d) All of the above
Q6- The Arbitral Tribunal may arrange for administrative assistance by a suitable__.
(a) Institution
(b) Person
(c) Either institution or person
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q7- During the arbitral proceedings, the arbitral tribunal-
(a) Can make interim award
(b) May require a party to provide appropriate security
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q8- Which article of the Constitution of India authorizes the Govt. to enter into an arbitration agreement?
(a) Article 235
(b) Article 299
(c) Article 39
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Q9- The provision of Section 8, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 are _____.
(a) Pre-emptory
(b) Directory
(c) Discretionary
(d) Optional
Q10- Section 9 of Arbitration Act, 1996 deals with-
(a) Interim measures by the court
(b) Discretionery powers of the court
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Q11- Under Section 11, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a person for being a arbitrtor-
(a) Must be an Indian National
(b) Must be an Indian citizen
(c) May be a person of any nationality
(d) May be a person of any nationality, except an alien enemy.
Q12- Section 12 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with-
(a) Procedure for arbitration
(b) grounds for challenge to arbitrator
(c) Finality of award
(d) None of the above
Q13- The provision which provides for mutual settlement of dispute by parties
before the Arbitral Tribunal is laid down under-
(a) Section 24
(b) Section 30
(c) Section 29
(d) Section 27
Q14- Section 39 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with-
(a) costs of arbitration
(b) fees for the arbitrators
(c) unpaid costs of arbitration
(d) None of the above
Q15- Foreign Award implies -
(a) where one of the parties is foreign national
(b) where the award is made in foreign country
(c) where subject matter deals with international trade
(d) All of the above
Q16- Part-III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, deals with-
(a) Geneva conventions
(b) conciliation
(c) UNCITRAL
(d) New York Convention Awards
Q17- The power and functions of the conciliator under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 has been laid down-
(a) Section 64
(b) Section 62
(c) Section 67
(d) Section 63
Q18- An executing court cannot determine the question relating to which of following?
(a) execution of a decree
(b) discharge of decree
(c) satisfaction of a decree
(d) modification of decree
Q19- Provision for interpleader suit is contained in which of the following Section of C.P.C.?
(a) Section 87
(b) Section 88
(c) Section 89
(d) Section 90
Q20- Which one of the following properties is liable to attachment and sale in the execution of a decree?
(a) right to future maintenance
(b) a promissory note
(c) book of account
(d) a right of personal service
Q21- A right to sue for damages is -
(a) an actionable claim
(b) not an actionable claim
(c) not only a mere right to sue
(d) transferable
Q22- Remedy of ‘foreclosure’ is available in which one of the following mortgages?
(a) usufructuary mortage
(b) simple mortgage
(c) mortgage by conditional sale
(d) English mortgage
Q23- Bar to further suit is dealt under which of the following section in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 16
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 12
Q24- Which of the following section deals with the transfer of decree in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Section 41
(b) Section 36
(c) Section 39
(d) Section 52
Q25- Which of the following section deals with the power of Supreme Court to transfer suits etc. in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Section 18
(b) Section 20
(c) Section 25
(d) Section 28
Q26- Which one of the following deals with the written statement in the Code of Civil
Procedure?
(a) Order 8, Rule 1
(b) Order 4, Rule 13
(c) Order 6, Rule 10
(d) Order 10, Rule 22
Q27- No decree to be set aside without notice to opposite party is dealt under which of the order/rule in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(a) Order 5, Rule 30
(b) Order 4, Rule 13
(c) Order 6, Rule 10
(d) Order 9, Rule 14
Q28- The object of discovery is-
(a) to elicit admissions
(b) to obviate the necessity to produce lengthy evidence
(c) to expedite disposal
(d) All of the above
Q29- A decision on issue of law-
(a) shall always operate as res-judicata
(b) shall never operate as res-judicata
(c) may or may not operate as res-judicata
(d) either (a) or (b)
Q30- A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at a place-
(a) where the contract was made
(b) where the contract was to be performed or breach occured
(c) anywhere in india (d) both (a) and (b)
Q31- Generally dying declarations are admissible as evideance under-
(a) Section 20 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(b) Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(c) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(d) Section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Q32- In which of the following cases the evidence given by the witness will not be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(a) when the witness is staying abroad
(b) when the witness is dead
(c) when witness cannot be found
(d) when the witness is in coma
Q33- Definition of Secondary Evidence has been given under ______ of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(a) Section 61
(b) Section 62
(c) Section 63
(d) Section 64
Q34- Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 gives provisions regarding proof as to electronic signatures?
(a) Section 67
(b) Section 67A
(c) Section 67B
(d) Section 67C
Q35- A person summoned to produce a document-
(a) does not become a witness in the case unless he is called as a witness.
(b) automatically becomes a witness in the case.
(c) automatically becomes a hostile witness in the case.
(d) can be cross examined without being called as a witness.
Q36- An admission is not relevant in a civil case if it is-
(a) relevant otherwise as an admission
(b) proceeding from a person in authority
(c) made under circumstances from which the court can infer that the parties agreed together that evidence of it should not be given
(d) made by a pleader, attorney or vakil.
Q37- In which of the following proceeding of domestic tribunals and departmental inquiries, the Indian Evidence Act is not applicable?
(a) officers conducting departmental inquries
(b) departmental proceedings
(c) Disciplinary proceeding tribunal
(d) All of the above
Q38- What do you understand by admission of execution?
(a) It means only admission of signature
(b) It means only valid attestation of the signature by two witnesses as required by the law
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Q39- What do you understand by libellous character?
(a) constituting or containing a libel
(b) constituting or containg a praise
(c) constituting or containing a commendation
(d) None of the above
Q40- Opinion of experts are relevant-
(a) under Section 45 of Evidence Act
(b) under Section 46 of Evidence Act
(c) under Section 47 of Evidence Act
(d) under Section 48 of Evidence Act
Q41- Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to property
(d) Cultural and educational rights
Q42- The Panchayat Raj system came in existence by the ______?
(a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(b) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
(c) 26th Constitutional Amendment
(d) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Q43- Fundamental Rights have no value without -
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to freedom of religion
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Q44- Indian citizenship can be acquired by -
(a) birth
(b) descent
(c) registration and naturalisation
(d) Any of the above
Q45- Which constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC & ST ?
(a) Article 337
(b) Article 334
(c) Article 338
(d) Article 339
Q46- Total number of Schedules in Constitution of India is -
(a) 22
(b) 17
(c) 97
(d) 12
Q47- Who of the following is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Union Minister of Water Resources
(c) Union Minister of Agriculture
(d) Union Minister of Earth Sciences
Q48- Who is the Chairman of national Integration Council?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Minister of Minority Affairs
(d) Chief Justice of India
Q49- For the Members of Parliament in India, who determines the salaries and allowances from time to time?
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Cabinet Secretariat
(d) Parliament by law
Q50- Constitution of India came into effect on -
(a) 26/01/1950
(b) 26/11/1949
(c) 20/11/1950
(d) 20/01/1949
Q51- The Law of Contract is nothing but-
(a) a child of commercial dealing
(b) a child of religion
(c) a child of day to day politics
(d) a child of economics
Q52- An Indian Mercantile Law is basesd upon -
(a) Indian culture
(b) British culture
(c) England law
(d) American law
Q53- Contractual rights and duties are created by -
(a) state
(b) statute
(c) parties
(d) custom or usage
Q54- A contract or an obligation to perform a promise could arise by -
(a) Agreement and Contract
(b) promissory estoppel
(c) standard form of contracts by promise
(d) All of the above.
Q55- Agreement to murder a person -
(a) cannot be enforceable by law
(b) is valid in law
(c) is invalid for want of consideration
(d) is invalid due to no consensus ad idem
Q56- Implied offers can be proved only by -
(a) words
(b) conduct
(c) circumstantial evidence
(d) prima facie evidence
Q57- In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be -
(a) absolute
(b) unqualified
(c) express
(d) All of the above
Q58- A contract is said to be made without consent when the contract is caused by-
(a) coercion
(b) undue influence
(c) fraud
(d) bilateral mistake of fact
Q59- The agreement entered into without free consent is -
(a) valid
(b) void
(c) voidable
(d) illegal
Q60- When both parities are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, it is called as -
(a) unilateral mistake
(b) bilateral mistake
(c) general mistake
(d) total mistake
Q61- Which one is the primary function of the Law of Tort?
(a) compensating the claimant
(b) the spreading of losses throughout the society
(c) the punishment to a wrongdoer
(d) the clarification of the Human Rights of parties
Q62- The law of limitation is not applicable to -
(a) civil matters
(b) revenue matters
(c) inheritance matters
(d) None of the above
Q63- A suit filed, appeal preferred and application made after period of limitation -
(a) would be accepted
(b) would be dismissed
(c) may or may not be accepted
(d) None of the above
Q64- Section 8 of the Limitation Act deals with -
(a) extention of time
(b) legal disability
(c) special exception
(d) None of the above
Q65- Section ____ of the Limitation Act, 1908 deals with suits against express
trustees and their representatives -
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Q66- When a person entitled to institute a suit or proceeding or make a application for the execution of a decree is, at the time from which the period of limitation is to be reckoned, he can institute suit, make application or other proceeding after getting rid from -
(a) insaneness
(b) minority
(c) idiotness
(d) All of the above
Q67- Time limitation for filing suit for compensation for false imprisonment is -
(a) one year
(b) two year
(c) three year
(d) four year
Q68- Time limitation for revision under Section 115 of CPC is -
(a) 30 days from the date of the decision sought to be revised
(b) 60 days from the date of the decision sought to be revised
(c) 90 days from the date of the decision sought to be revised
(d) 120 days from the date of the decision sought to be revised
Q69- Time limitation under CPC to set aside a sale in execution of a decree including any such application by a judgment debtor is -
(a) 15 days from the date of sale
(b) 20 days from the date of sale
(c) 30 days from the date of sale
(d) 45 days from the date of sale
Q70- Time limitation for review of cases of judgment except in the cases provided in Section 161 and 162 of Limitation Act is -
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
Q71- Time limitation for the payment of the amount of a decree by installment is -
(a) 3 months from the date of decree
(b) 6 months from the date of decree
(c) 9 months from the date of decree
(d) 1 year from the date of decree
Q72- Time limitation for moving application under Section 12(2) of CPC is -
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 9 years
Q73- As per Section 2(12) of the Sale of Goods Act, quality of goods include -
(a) state of goods
(b) condition of goods
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Q74- As per Section 2(8) of the Sales of Goods Act, insolvent means a person -
(a) who has ceased to pay his debt in the ordinary course of business
(b) cannot pay his debts as they become due
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Q75- The agent having in customary course of business as such agent authority either to sell goods or to consign goods for the purpose of sale or to buy goods or to raise money on the security of goods is called -
(a) agent
(b) merchantile agent
(c) partner
(d) None of the above
Q76- Section 4, of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with –
(a) Sale
(b) agreement to sell
(c) both (a) &
(b) (d) None of the above
Q77- According to Section 5(2), subject to provision of any law for the time being in force, a contract of sale may be -
(a) made in writing
(b) by words of mouth
(c) partly in writing or partly by words of mouth
(d) All of above
Q78- Section 12 of the Sale of Goods Act deals with -
(a) conditions in contracts
(b) warranty in contracts
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Q79- Section 31 of the Sale of Goods Act, duty bounds the buyer to -
(a) accept the goods
(b) pay for the goods
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Q80- Where an unpaid seller has made part delivery of the goods, he may exercise
his right to -
(a) return on the remainder
(b) lien on remainder
(c) sale to any other person
(d) None of the above
Q81- Which Section of the Sale of Goods Act deals with suit for price -
(a) 50
(b) 55
(c) 57
(d) None of the above
Q82- Section 57 of the Sale of Goods Act deals with -
(a) suit for price
(b) suit for damages for non-delivery
(c) suit for damages for non-acceptance
(d) None of the above
Q83- _____ can be a subject matter for the Sale of Goods Act -
(a) trademark
(b) patent
(c) goodwill
(d) All of the above
Q84- In case of Sale, the risk is associated with ____.
(a) money
(b) goods
(c) ownership
(d) possession
Q85- An agreement to sell will become sale in -
(a) future date
(b) immediate effect
(c) 30 days
(d) None of the above
Q86- Choose the correct date and year on which Payment of Wages Act was passed.
(a) 23/04/1936
(b) 28/03/1937
(c) 25/04/1937
(d) 27/04/1936
Q87- Which section of Payment of Wages Act covers deduction for damages or loss?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 12
(d) Section 7
Q88- Which of these deductions under Section 7 of Payment and Wages Act is not authorized?
(a) deduction for fines
(b) deduction for payment of Income Tax
(c) Deduction for payment of insurance
(d) deduction for payment of uniform and property
Q89- Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
(a) basic wage
(b) dearness allowance
(c) incentive
(d) gratuity
Q90- Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the maximum limit on deductions should not ordinarily cross -
(a) 50% generally and 65% in case of payment due to the co-operatives
(b) 60% generally and 75% in case of payment due to the co-operatives
(c) 50% generally and 75% in case of payment due to the co-operatives
(d) 40% generally and 65% in case of payment due to the co-operatives
Q91- If the employee is terminated or removed from the employment by the employer, the wages of that employee should be paid within ____ days from the day on which he was removed or terminated.
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 2 days
Q93- Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 -
(a) individual manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent
(b) managing agent includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer
(c) only employer can act as managing agent
(d) the appropriate government shall appoint managing agent
Q94- Under Worksmen’s Compensation Act, employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in respect of any injury which does not result in the total or partial disablement of the workmen for a period exceeding _____ days.
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
Q95- Deviation of route in carrying the goods by the railways due to necessity will -
(a) lead to breach of contract
(b) not lead to breach to conract
(c) lead to charge of excess
(d) None of the above
Q96- The injuries board is -
(a) a body that advises the court
(b) a type of court that calls witnesses
(c) a fault compensation body
(d) a body that assesses personal injury claims
Q97- Civil equality means -
(a) equality before law
(b) equality of opportunity
(c) equal distribution of wealth
(d) equal right to participate in the affairs of the state
Q98- The remedies available to a person suffering from breach of contract are -
(a) suit for damages
(b) suit for injunction
(c) quantum meruit
(d) All of the above
Q99- During the execution of a decree, all the questions arising between the parties
to the suit will be dealt by the -
(a) original court (b) appellate court
(c) executing court (d) Any of the above
Q100- Which one of the following is not a defense to trespass to the person -
(a) lawful authority
(b) contributory negligence
(c) self defense
(d) necessity
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