INDIAN RLY Q BANK GROUP D To GROUP C EXAM GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

I. Expand the abbreviations:

ADRM-Additional Divisional Railway Manager
AGM - Additional General Manager
APPSC - Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission
CCO - Chief Claims Officer
CPRO - Chief Public Relations Officer
CTE - Chief Track Engineer
CBE - Chief Bridge Engineer
CLW - Chittaranjan Locomotive Works
CPDE - Chief Planning & Development Engineer
PCE - Principal Chief Engineer
CMPE - Chief Motive Power Engineer
CME - Chief Mechanical Engineer
CWE - Chief Workshop Engineer
CRSE - Chief Rolling Staff Engineer
CEE - Chief Electrical Engineer
CESE - Chief Electrical Service Engineer
CSC - Chief Security Commissioner
CCM - Chief Commercial Manager
CMD - Chief Medical Director
CAO/C- Chief Administrative Officer/Construction
CELE - Chief Electrical Loco Engineer
CSTE - Chief Signal & Telecommunication Engineer
CCE -Chief Communication Engineer
COS - Controller of Stores
CMM - Chief Materials Manager
CPO - Chief Personnel Officer
CPO/A - Chief Personnel Officer Administration
CPOIR- Chief Personnel Officer Industrial Relation
COM - Chief Operations Manager
CPTM - Chief Passenger Traffic Manager
CFTM - Chief Freight Traffic Manager
COFMOW – Central Organization for Modernization of Workshop
CPM - Chief Projects Manager
CRB - Chairman Railway Board
CRS - Commissioner Railway Safety
CRS - Carriage Repair Shop
CGEGIS - Central Government Employees Group Insurance Scheme
DRM - Divisional Railway Manager
DLW - Diesel Locomotive Works
EDPM- Electrical Data Processing Manager
FA&CAO- Financial Advisor and Chief Accounts Officer
HBA - House Building Advance
IREM - Indian Railway Establishment Manual
IRCTC- Indian Railways Catering and Tourism Corporation
ICF - Integral Coach Factory
IRISET- Indian Railway Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunication
IRCON- Indian Railway Construction Organization
IRWO- Indian Railway Welfare Organization
ILO – International Labour Organization
LAP - Leave at Average Pay

INDIAN RLY Q BANK GROUP D To GROUP C EXAM - GENERAL ENGLISH AND GRAMMAR

1. Letter Writing: in about 100 words (Assume your name as A)
1. A letter to your friend inviting him for your marriage.
2. A letter to your friend describing the annual day function of your school.
3. A letter to the Editor about the problems in your locality
4. A letter to the Municipal Commissioner for regular supply of drinking water
5. A letter to the Municipal Commissioner describing the conditions of the roads in your locality.
6. A letter to a leading company for a job of Junior Assistant.
7. A letter to a Post Master complaining about the non-receipt of your parcel from your friend at Delhi.
8. A letter to your Officer requesting sanction of leave
9. A letter to your father about the new job you have taken up recently.
10. A letter to your friend in America describing the problems of un-employment .
11. A letter to your friend inviting him to spend Vacation with you
12. A letter to your father describing your progress in studies
13. A letter to your brother congratulating him at his success in the examination.
14. A letter to your friend describing important sight-seeing places in U. P.
15. A letter to your fiend expressing condolences on the death of his mother.
16. A letter to a Publisher for supply of certain books by VPP.

INDIAN RLY Q BANK GROUP D To GROUP C EXAM - MATHS

Q BANK SIGNAL & TELE PART IV

Q B - TELECOMMUNICATION - PART II & III


1) What is a Duty Pass? Explain the occasions for which different types of duty passes are issued to an Railway employee?

2) What is a Metal Pass? Explain the eligibility conditions?

3) What is the procedure of availing the Special CL? On which occasions the special CL can be sanctioned?

4) Write about Study Leave?

5) What is meant by Suspension? List out the entitlements during suspension?

6) What are the Minor Penalties that can be imposed on an Railway employee?

7) Give the classification of Railway employees under HOER. Mention the Rostered hours, statutory hours, and rest period for each?

8) What are the questions to be asked during the Preliminary Inquiry ?

9) List out the Minor and Major penalties and Disciplinary and Appeal rules as applicable to railway servents

10) Distinguish between Appointing Authority and Disciplinary Authority

11) What is workmans compensation act and to whom it applies?

12) Describe the various stores to be maintained by JE-Tele with accountal?

13) Write the following:
a) Scrap Disposal. b) MAS account. c) DMTR
d) PAC e) Non-stock requisition

14) Explain the following:
a) Objectives of stock verification. b) Periodicity of SV.
c) Method of SV. d) What is stock sheet?

15) Write short notes on the following:
a) Classification of Railway expenditure.
b) Charged expenditure.
c) Budget estimates.

16) What are the different types of Tenders and explain?

17) What is meant by EMD & SD ? Who will pay and explain with rates?

18) What is M.B. and how M.B. is filled? Explain with example.

19) Write 10 points on the DOs and Donts in execution of work from vigilance angle

20) What are the different type of stores to be maintained by an SE/Tele? Give the purpose, scale accountal of each type.

21) What is the need for stock verification? Give the types and explain how the stock verification is done?

22) What is single tender and when it is done?

23) What are the different steps taken by Railways to implement use of Hindi in official work

24) What incentives are given for passing various Hindi examinations?

25) What are the incentives for the use of Raj bhasha ?

26) According to official language group, with how many regions India is divided ? Mention the Different states under each region ?


TELECOMMUNICATION - PART III

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER


1) Number of PTOs eligible by Railway servant in a calendar year are

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 ( C )

2) Leave not due during entire service shall be limited to a maximum o

A) 24 months B) 48 months C) 360 Days D) 4 months ( C )

3) Group D staff retired after 20 years of service will get the following sets of passes

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) NIL ( B )

4) Joining time eligible when the distance is below 1000 KM is

A) 10 days B) 12 days C) 15 days D) Nil. ( A )

5) The output stage of a practical amplifier is always - - - coupled

A) R-C B) Transformer C) L.C ( B )

6) R.C coupling is used for - - - amplification

A) Voltage B) Current C) Power ( A )

7) A Zener diode is operated in the - - - -region

A) Breakdown Region B) Forward characteristic region ( A )

C) Reverse characteristic region

8) A Zener diode is used as - - -

A) Rectifier B) Voltage regulator C) For both ( B )

9) A Transistor has - - - PN junctions

A) One B) Two C) Three ( B )

10) Common collector arrangement is generally used - - -

A) Impedance matching B) Voltage matching C) None of the above ( A )

11) The most commonly used transistor circuit arrangement - - -

A) Common base B) Common emitter C) Common collector ( B )

12) The function of Transistor is to do - - -

A) Rectification B) Amplification C) None of the above ( B )

13) Amplifiers are coupled to - - - -

A) Increase gain B) Reduce noise C) For both ( A )

14) If three stage amplifiers has individual stage gain of 10 db, 5 db & 12 db then the total gain

A) 600 db B) 7 db C) 27 db ( C )

15) Output transformer is always a - - - - transformer

A) Step down B) Step up C) Both ( A )

16) Negative feed back reduces - - - - in amplifiers

A) Distortion B) Stability C) None of the above ( A )

17) Positive feed back used in - - - -

A) Oscillators B) High gain amplifiers C) Rectifiers ( A )

18) An Oscillator produces - - - oscillations

A) Damped B) Undamped C) Both ( B )

19) Tuned amplifiers are used for - - - - frequency amplification

A) Audio B) Radio C) For both ( B )

20) Detection is done in - - - -

A) Radio transmitter B) Radio receiver C) None of the abov ( B)

21) Frequency modulation gives - - - noise

A) More B) Less C) No noise ( B )

22) Ground plane antenna are used for

A) VHF B) UHF C) MW D) HF ( A )


23) In AM wave, useful power is carried by - - -

A) Carrier B) Side bands C) Both of the above ( B )

24) Superhetrodyne principle provides selectivity at - - - stages

A) RF B) IF C) None of the above ( B )

25) A switch has - - - states

A) One B) Two C) Three ( B )

26) A circuit that generates square wave is called - - -

A) Amplifiers B) Multi vibrators C) Flip-flop ( B )

27) A FET is essentially a - - - - driven device

A) Voltage B) Current C) Both ( A )

28) A FET is a - - - transistor

A) Bi-polar B) uni-polar C) None of the above ( A )

29) An SCR has - - - PN junctions

A) One B) Two C) Three ( C )

30) If firing angle in SCR increases, output is - - -

A) Increases B) Decreases C) No change ( B )

31) An SCR is a - - - switch

A) Uni-directional B) Bi-directional C) None of the above ( A )

32) A Triac is a - - - 
power switchA) Uni-directional B) Bi-directional C) None of the above ( B )

33) A Triac has - - - terminals

A) One B) Two C) Three ( C )

34) A UJT has - - - PN Junction

A) One B) Two C) Three ( A )

35) A Diac is an - - - switch

A) AC B) DC C) Both the above ( A )

36) ICs are generally made of - - -

A) Silicon B) Germanium C) None of the above ( A )

37) Binary means - - - Binary numbers have a base of 2

A) One B) Two C) Three ( B )

38) The digits used in a binary number system are

A) 0 & 0 B) 0 & 1 C) 1 & 1 ( B )

39) A Byte is a string of - - - 
BitsA) 16 B) 8 C) 2 ( B )

40) A typical Microcomputer have - - - registers in memory

A) 4096 B) 2048 C) 65536 ( C )

41) A Gate is a logic circuit with one or more inputs, but only - - - output

A) One B) Two C) Three ( A )

42) The - - - gate has one or more high inputs, produces high output

A) NOT B) OR C) XOR ( B )

43) Which is the logic gate, where all input signals must be high to get a high output

A) AND B) OR C) NOT ( A )

44) In a NOR gate all inputs must be - - - to get high output

A) Low B) High C) None of the above ( A )

45) A NAND gate is equivalent to an - - - gate followed by an inverter

A) AND B) OR C) NOR ( A )

46) What is ISDN?

A) Integrated Services Data Network. ( D )

B) Internal services digital network.

C) International services data networks.

D) Integrated services digital network

47) For making outgoing calls, what is the tone heard when the telephone handset is lifted

A) Busy tone B) Dial tone C) No tone D) Ring back tone ( B )

48) What is the break down voltage suggested for lightening dischargers (LD) in

the MDF of telephone exchanges

A)230 V B)160 V C)300 V D)1600 V ( A )

49) What is the basic function of a telephone exchange?

A)Signaling B) Switching C) Control D) All the above ( D )

50) What is the control system used in Electronic exchange

A) Stored program control B) Wire logic control ( A )

C) Electromagnetic control D) None of the above

51) The maximum number of subscriber lines in C-DOT 128P RAX type exchange is

A)104 B) 112 C)96 D)88 ( D )

52) The duplication system employed for the PSU card of an electronic exchange is

A)Passive standby B)Load sharing standby C)N+1 Redundancy ( B )

D)None of the above

53) is the object of earthing for telecommunication equipment

A) to provide a return earth

B) To provide safety against shack to the working person ( D )

C) to provide protection against unduly high voltages D) all the above

54) What is the earth electrode called ( C )

A) A wire buried in to the earth nearby 
the equipmentB) An iron rod buried I to the earth near the equipment

C) A metal plate electrically connected to the general mass of the earth

D None of the above

55) What is the maximum limit of earth resistance for Telecom equipment

A) 10 ohms B) 5 ohms C) 2 ohms D) 1 ohm ( D )

56) How the telecom equipment is connected to the earth electrode ( A )

A) by using earthing lead B) by keeping the equipment close to the electrode C) by using capacitors D) None of the above

57) What are the materials used to prepare an efficient earth for telecom equipment ( A )

A) coke, crushed coal and common salt

B) plastic waste, thermo coal and glass pieces

C) wood saw dust, white cement and asbestos powder

D) wax, petroleum jelly and castor oil

58) In Microwave station which lead of the charger is earthed

A) negative B) positive C) None of the above ( B )

59) The maximum number of way stations can be in a control section using 2- digit code are

A) 60 B) 99 C) 100 D) 90 ( B )

60) DTMF control equipment works on

A) 24 Volts B) 12 Volts C) 48 Volts D) 230 Volts ( B )

61) Nominal ringing period at way station is

A) 4 seconds B) 8 seconds C) 12 seconds D) 1 minute ( A )

62) No. of 20 watts loud speakers permitted to connect an 250 watt amplifierare ( C )

A ) 5 B) 15 C) 12 D) 20

63) Block circuits in RE area works on ( C )

A) MW patch B) VF quad C) PET quad D) Carrier quad

64) To increase the ampere hour capacity of secondary cells, the cells are to be connected in

A) Series B) Parallel C) Series and Parallel D) One above the othe ( B )

65) No. of cable pairs required for 4 wire E&M working are ( C )

A) One B) Four C) Three D) Six

66) Duplexer is used for ( D )

A To couple two different antennaes

B) To prevent interference between two antennas

C) To increase the speed of transmission

D) To allow one antenna to be used for reception and transmission

67) Inverter convert ( B )

A) AC to DC B) DC to AC C) DC to DC D) AC to AC

68) For converting 2 wire to 4 wire the following is required ( C )

A) Low pass filter B) High Pass filter C) Hybrid D) All these

69) In EC socket the transformer used have the impedance ratio ( D )

A) 2:1 B) 1120 : 1120 C) 470 : 1120 D) 1120 : 600

70) In a hybrid transformer the loss is ( B )

A) 2 db B) 3db C) 4 db D) No loss

71) A power amplifier gives a gain of 3 db when the input is 1 W the output is: ( B )

A) 1.3W B) 2 W C) 3 W D) .3 W

72) Grid antenna is used in ( C )

A) MW B) VHF C) UHF D) HF

73) Hybrid transformer is used in the following electronic exchange card ( D )

A) LCC B) SPC C) TIC D) TGT

74) In electronic exchange the system software is written as ( D )

A) E PROM B) E2 PROM C) RAM D) ROM

75) Which of the electronic exchange card is not redundant. ( B )

A) X SC B) LCC C) PSU D) RGD

76) The processor used in a C DOT exchange is ( A )

A) 65 CO2 B) 8085 C) Z80 D) 8031

77) Control card used in C DOT exchange is ( D )

A) SPC B) TIC C) RCT D) All the above.

78) RE repeater are spaced at every ( B )

A) 17 KM B) 40 KM C) 60 KM D) 1860 M

79) The insertion loss of way station control telephone is ( C )

A) 3 db B) 2 db C) 0.2 db D) 0.5 db.

80) The charectristic impedance of PET quad pair is -------------- ( B )

A) 600 Ohms B) 470 Ohms C) 1120 Ohms

81) The loading coil section in RE cable is ( A )

A) 915 m B) 1830 m C) 530m

82) Which of the MW frequency spectrum is used for Railway administration trunks ( B )

A) 4125 4425 MHz B) 7125 7425 MHz C) 1200 1600 MHz

83) The size of RE cable having 2 PET and 12 VF quad is represented as ( C )

A) 2 + 0 + 12 B) 0 + 2 + 12 C) 0 + 12 + 2 D) 0 + 14

84) Float charge voltae adjusted per cell in ( A )

A) 2.16 V B) 2.4 V C) 1.8 V

85) Beta in grounded emitter circuit is very high due to ( B )

A) base current is equal to collector current

B) base current in small compared to collector current

C) base current is higher than collector current

86) A metallic sheath is provided in RE cable to ( B )

A) to reduce cross-talk B) to reduce induce voltage

C) to reduce weight of the cable

87) In RE cable the insulation resistance will be ( C )

A) less than 10 mega ohms B) more than 10 mega ohms

C) above 20 mega ohms

88) Loud Speakers are always connected in parallel on ( C )

A) Voltage Matching B) Impedance Matching

C) Both of them D) None of them

Q BANK - TELECOMMUNICATION - PART I

1) What is the advantage of DTL MUX over conventional ITI MUX?

2) According to the CCITT recommendations, how the basic group is onstructed? Explain with diagram?

3) In DTL MUX, what are the steps involved to translate a low frequency voice channel to high frequency of band 60 to 552 KHz ?

4) Write short notes on
 any two of the following:

a) Channel modem b) VFT card c) Base band combiner Board.
5) What are the basic requirements of PCM system? Explain about sampling?

What is a frame and multi-frame? Explain about multi-frame?

6) List out the factors to be considered for selecting a site for a microwave station.

7) What do you understand by the terms non-fade level, fade margin and threshold level. Briefly explain each of them.

8) What are the merits and de-merits of frequency diversity system over space diversity system?
9) Explain working of SPC exchange with a functional block diagram
10) Draw the basic block diagram of an ELECTRONIC TELEPHONE and explain its working.

11) List out the features of any electronic exchange and explain any five features

12) What are the different types of modulation techniques and explain balance modulator?

13) Expalin about positive and negative feed back? Explain advantages of negative feedback in amplifiers

14) Write short notes on any Three

i) Phase lock loop
ii) Automatic gain control (AGC)
iii) Varactor Diode
iv) Step Recovery diode
v) Mixer in Receiver

15) What do you understand by hybrid circuit? Describe the audio range bybrid function in full detail with diaram

16) What are the precautions to be taken while loading the RE main telecomcable
 drums? How cable is laid on culverts and bridges?

17) What are the different types of RE cable joints? Explain the function of loading coil joint and condenser joint?

MODEL Q BANK - PERSONNEL BRANCH.

QUESTION BOOKLET PUBLISHED BY PERSONNEL BRANCH.

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS :

1. The lowest pay Scale in railway is ___________________

2. New Pension scheme has come into effect from_______________

3. E.S ____________ deals with the latest schedule of powers o­n Establishment

matters in S.E.Railway.

4. The General Manager of the South Eastern Railway is __________________

5. A person convicted by a court of law can be removed from service without

conducting enquiry in terms of Ruls_________ of D&A rules 1968.

6. Central Administrative Tribunals were established with effect from___________

7. The official languages Act. Was passed in the year ______________

8. ____________percent of post are required to be reserved for Physically

Handicapped Category.

9. The Enquiry in a D&A case should be conducted o­n terms of Rule________of

D&A rules 1968.

10. The lowest competent authority to approved grant of compassionate appointment to a divorced daughter of the Ex-employee is _________________

11. Pay fixation o­n promotion from a lower to a higher grade is done in terms of

FR_____________

12. In a normal selection where mode of selection, is written test o­nly, the Record of  service shall carry _______ marks in terms of latest instructions.

13. An employee can be taken up for bringing outside political influence in service matters in terms of Rule__________ of Rly. Service conduct Rules.

14. SF___________ is used for appointment of Enquiry Officer in a Major Penalty Case.

15. An employee was drawing Rs.6500/- as his emoluments at the time of his death after 6 years of service. The amount of Death Gratuity payable to him will be Rs__________.

16. The pay scale of a Gang-mate of Engineering Dept. is ______________

17. The selection Board should consist of JAG officers for selection to posts in

Scale________________ and above.

18. Compassionate appointment in the case of missing employee can be processed after_________ months from the date of missing of the employee.

19. The present rate of Dearness Allowance is _________ Percent.

19. An employee convicted by a court of law can be removed from service without holding an enquiry in terms of Rule _________ of D&A Rules, 1968.

21. E.S 57/2000 deals with _________________.

22. The staff of S.E.Rly. Co-operative Society who has completed 15 years of

service will be eligible for issue of _________ sets of Privilege passes every

year.

23. The Principal Bench of Central Administrative Tribunal is at __________.

24. The qualifying service calculated for grant of pensionary benefit of an

employee who has takes voluntary retirement after 25 years of service will be

________ years.

25. All kinds of leave takes together cannot exceed ______ months at o­ne time.

26. Maximum amount of LAP which can be granted at o­ne time can not exceed

__________ days.

27. The maximum numbers of stagnation increments which can be granted are

____________.

28. The participants in PREM meeting are

29. Maximum amount of LAP that can be taken at a time is _____

30. Rightsizing implies.

31. o­nly live permanent post can be surrendered. ( True/False)

32. Statutory canteen id required where no. of employees is .

33. SBF Committee consists of

34. Medical Category for Gangman is

35. EA o­n CG for missing cases can be processed after

36. Any Rly. Dues of a retirement employee can be recovered from (i) DCRG

only. (ii) DCRG and Commuted value of pension or (iii) Last month’s Salary.

37. Expand RELHS.

38. SLP.

39. General Selection implies

40. Show the division of DRQ/DPQ and LDCE in this hypothetical cadre.

Category Santioned Strength

MCM 08

Tech-I 25

Tech-II 56

Tech-III 146

41. SCL for sportspersons I available for ____________ days in a year.

42. Safety Related Retirement Scheme is available for which categories ?

43.Salary payment through banks is essential/non-essential for the Gr.C

employees in South Eastern Railway.

44. An employee’s ACR can be filled by his supervisory authority o­nly if he has

worked under his for a minimum period of __________.

45. Matching surrender required for creation of posts for new assets is in the ratio

________.

46. IRLDA stands for .

47. Joining time admissible in the case of temporary transfer not exceeding 180

days is _____________.

48. Provision of an attendant to a Railway employee referred to Rly. or recognized hospital may be considered by the authorized medical officer depending upon the severity of the case ( True/False )

49. No Railway servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding ____________.

50. In no circumstances shall the resignation of a Railway servant whose conduct is under investigation be accepted without the sanction of the authority competent to dismiss him. ( True/false ).

51. The headquarter of a Railway servant under suspension is his last place of

duty( True/False ).

52. A Rly servant who has acquired lien o­n a post ceases to retain lien o­n that post while o­n foreign service. ( True/False ).

53. Extraordinary leave granted o­n Medical Certificate can be converted

retrospectively into “ leave not due “( True/False).

54. Hospital leave is granted to Rly. servants other than in _______ or ________.

55. No Rly. servant shall accept any gifts as per Rule________of Rly. conduct

Rules.

56. Accident allowance is admissible to running staff who are held up at any

station other than their HQ due to an accident for a period exceeding.

57. Example of a major penalty.

58. Change in name of a female Rly. servant consequent to her marriage can be

done with the personal approval of CPO.( True/False ).

59. Hutting allowance is admissible during accidents to the affected Rly.

servants(True/False ).

60. IRCTC stands for

61. Competent authority to remove OS-II is under D&A is .

62. PREM stands for.

63. JCM stands for.

64. TDS

65. Khalasi Helper is now redesignated as __________________.

66. Provision for warm clothing allowance exists when an employee is transferred from plains to hiss ( True/False.)

67. Adhoc promotion can be granted with the approval of CPO for a period of

_____________.

68. Laundry allowance to nurses will not be admissible if the period of leave

exceeds 15 days at a time ( True/False ).

69. Present Rate of DA is __________.

70. change in name due to clerical error can be rectified at the Divisional Level

itself ( True/False ).

71. MPP

72. SLP

73. OS-II post is a selection/non-selection post.

74. Revocation of suspension is done through form________.

75. An employee who has passed a suitability test o­nce need not be called again

(True/False).

76. Appeal against the order of CAT lies in ________________.

77. o­nly women can be members of Vishaka Committee (True/False.)

78. Chairman of SBF committee at Zonal level is _____________.

79. CTG is equivalent to o­nly o­ne month’s basic salary ( True/False.)

80. TC from unrecognized school is acceptable for EA o­n CG ( True/False)

81. Promotion can be effected during punishment (True/False)

82. Allotment of Qr. is done o­n the basis of Seniority/date of application.

83. The highest pay scale in railway is Rs. 30,000/- fixed.

84. Employment assistance in case of a missing employee can be granted with the approval of DRM.

85. Gr.D employee who retires after 10 years of qualifying service shall be

eligible for grant of 2 sets of Post retirement Complimentary passes in a year.

86. The pay scale of a technician –III in 4000-6000/-.

87. It is permissible for the same office to both set of questing paper and evaluate

the answer in a selection.

88. An employee is not eligible for pension if he is compulsorily retired from

service.

89. Compassionate appointment in the case of missing employee can be processed after _________months from the date of missing of the employee.

90. The present rate of Dearness Allowance is _________ percent.

91. An Employee convicted by a court of law can be removed from service

without holding an enquiry in terms of Rule_______of D&A Rules,1968.

92. E.S. 57/2000 deals with ____________.

93. The staff of S.E.Rly. Co-operative Society who has completed 15 years of

service will be eligible for issue of __________ sets of Privisege passes every

year.

94. The Principal Bench of Central Administrative Tribunal is as __________.

95. The qualifying service calculated for pensionary benefit of an employee who

has taken Voluntary retirement after 25 years of service will be ___________

years.

96. All kind of leave takes together cannot exceed___________months at o­nce.

97. Maximum amount of LAP which can be grated at o­ne time can not exceed

___________ days.

98. The maximum number of stagnation increments which can be granted are

_________________.

Write full forms of the following :-

PRIME :

CONCOR:

DMRC

RITES

IRWO

RVNL

DESCREPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS :

1. Discuss the salient features of the New Pension Scheme.

2. Discuss the various modules of Prime ? In your opinion, how will PRIME

help in efficient punctioning of Personnel Dept.

3. Discuss the main provisions related to compassionate appointment. In your

opinion, what are the bottlenecks in speedy disposal of Comp. Appt. cases.

4. (a ) How change of classification is done under Hours of Work and

periodic rest(HWPR)

(b) How duty roster is prepared and what is the rule of payment of overtime

allowance ?

5.As a Personnel Inspector how would you promote use of Hindi in Office and

write monetary & non-monetary incentives to promote use of Rajbhasha ?

6.What do you mean by compassionate appointment ? what procedure is adopted

for giving compassionate appointment in case of missing employee ? How will

you reduce the cmpassionate appointment cases pending in your division ?

7.Who are workmen under W.C.Act. 1923 ? Under what circumstances an

employer is liable to pay compensation to workman employed under him ?

8.Briefly discuss the role of Personnel/Welfare Inspector in staff matters ?

9. That date of birth of Shyamal is 06.3.1946 . While he was o­n Scale of Rs.

6500-10500/- his basic pay was Rs. 7100/- . He was promoted to the scale Rs.

7450-11500/- o­n 01.01.2006.. o­n the date of superannuation he will complete

31. yrs. 7 months qualifying service. ( a) Calculate retirement Pension , (b)

Calculate retirement gratuity.( c) Calculate Commutation value of Pension.

10. Draft a major penalty chargesheet to be issued to Sri Buddha Dasgupta, Head

Clerk, for unauthorized absence. His attendance for last months is shown

below:

Jan:- LAP- 12.1.06 to 16.1.06 , CL- 21.1.06. LWP- 22.1.06 to 31.1.06.

Feb :- LAP – 3.2.06 to 5.2.06, LWP – 8.2.06 to 18.2.06.

Mar :-CL – 11.3.06 LWP – 12.3.06 to 31.3.06.

11. a) What are the monetary incentives for use of Hindi?

b) How will you increase use of Hindi . Give suggessions ?

12.a) What is the difference between selection and suitability? Discuss with

separate examples for both .

b ) Trade test is done in which categories / cases ?How is it done ?

13. Discuss the provisions for absorption of

i. Medically dectegorised staff.

ii. Staff rendered surplus.

14. a) What is seniority ? How it is affected in case of transfer- own request,

Mutual , administrative?

b) NBR and Pfroforma fixation.

15. Suggest 5 practical measures to encourage use of Hindi in normal day to day

working.

16. Sri Kumar has been selected as ASM and has finished theoretical training. He

is posted as ASM in ADA division. Before taking independent charge, he

applies for Extra ordinary leave for 2 years as he wishes to appear for Civil

Service Exams. Give the provisions relating to EOL, its admissibility and

discuss if Sri Kumar is eligible for EOL as applied for.

17. What procedure is followed for grant of compassionate appointment ? Show

the steps in a chart and suggest if any steps can be eliminated or combined to

reduce time and duplication.

18. A diesel Loco shed has proposed for creation of additional 224 posts

consisting of 50 supervisors, 120 technical and 54 Gr.D staff. Yardstick may

be assumed to be 4.6 per loco.

What are the issues you will raise in your note to Sr.DPO as in charge of

Cadre dept ? or what quires will you ask from the shed in charge ?

Assume o­nly this much information is available to you.

19. What benefits are admissible to staff at the time of retirement ?

20. Discuss the various provisions of Official Language Act.

21. Discuss workman’s compensation Act. With respect to the following:

a. Conditions in which compensation is payable

b. Definition of Workman

c. “in course of an during “employment “.

d. Procedure for dealing with Compensation cases.

22. Brief history of the case of Sri V K Rao is given. Prepare parawise remarks .

Brief History :- Sri V K Rao was working as KSI(H) under

SE(W)NW/KGP . He expired o­n 20.8.85 while in service leaving behing

following members :

Smt. Kavitha Wife

Sri K S Rao Son

Smt. Lalitha Married daughter.

Sri K S Rao was minor at the time of death of the employee. DOB being

15.7.75.

Application for Employment assistance was made o­n 13.3.04 to

Sr.DPO/KGP. Another representation was sent o­n 22.11.04. Both appeals

were regretted since the case was time barred. Application dated 13.3.04

was not received in the office.

23. a) How change of classification is done under Hours of Work and Periodic

rest(HWPR) ?

b) How duty roster is prepared and what is the rule for payment of overtime

allowance ?

24. As personnel Inspector how would you promote to use of Hindi in office and

write monetary and non-monetary incentives to promote use of Rajbhasa ?

25. What do you mean by comassionate appointment in case of a missing

employee ? How will you reduce the compassionate appointment case

pending in your division ?

26. Who are workman under W.C.Act 1923 ? Under what circumstances an

employer is liable to pay compensation to workman employed under him ?

27. Briefly discus the role of personnel /Welfare Inspector in staff matters ?

28. The date of birth of Shyamal is 06.03.1946. While he was o­n Scale Rs. 6500-

10500/- his basic pay was Rs. 7100/- . He was promoted to the Scale Rs.

7450-11500/- o­n 01.01.2006. o­n the date of supernnuation he will complete

31 Yrs., 7 months qualifying service.

a) Calculate retirement pension.

b) Calculate retirement gratuity.

c) Calculate Commutation Value of Pension.

Relevant Para of OA preferred by Smt. Kavitha

1.1. That the husband of the applicant unfortunately expired o­n 20.8.85

while in service. That the son of the applicant made a representation

before competent authority enclosing a copy of death certificate of his

father stating his death.

1.2. The he made a representation seeking compassionate appointment in

his favour.

1.3. That, the DRM(P) informed that compassionate assistance could not

be considered since the application was not made within the

prescribed limit of 5 yrs. from the date of death.

1.4. That, the applicant again made an appeal that considering the poor

financial condition of family, case may be considered

sympathetically.

29. Suggest 5 practical measures to encourage use of Hindi in day to day working.

30. Sri Rao has made an appeal to ADRM. The facts are as follows :-

He was declared unsuitable in modified suitability test conducted to fill up

vacancies due to

Restructuring since he was undergoing punishment of reduction to lowest

stage in time scale of pay 3050-4590. He also had a vigilance case pending

on 1.11.03 against him.

Sri Rao has appealed that since his punishment was effected from 4.12.03,

he may be granted promotion.

Put up a note discussing the issues involved.

31. What is annual cadre review ? Is it done for all categories ?

32. Settlement payment of Lt. Shri V Khana is being processed in the name of his

wife Smt. Usha Khanna. However, 1 day before the payment can be made, a

lady claims she is the real wife of Lt. Shri Khanna. You are OS/Settlement.

Put up a note discussion of issues and the possible solution.

33. What types of allowances are admissible to nursing staff ?

34. Give 2 examples each of states in A, B & C categories for purposes of

Rajbhasa.

35. The cadre of supervisory category in Elect (TRD ) is as under

Category Sanc. St. o­n Roll.

SSE 5 3

SE 10 2

JE-I 18 12

JE-II 28 34

You have to conduct a selection for section Engineer, do the following:

a. Assessment if vacancies/No. of candidates to be called.

b. Nomination of selection Board.

c. Instructions for setting question paper and evaluation.

d. Competent authority to approved panel.

e. Preparation of a tabulation sheet.

36.Brief history of the case of Smt. P Prasanna is given . Prepare parawise

ramarks.

Brief History : The husband of the applicant died o­n 12.11.05. The applicant

made a representation dt. 25.1.06 requesting for EA o­n CG. She was asked to

submit the requisite documents including the Death certificate.

She requested CMS/KGP to issue the death certificate by post since the original

was lost. CMS informed her that certificate of death is issued o­nly after

submission of relevant documents ie. Medical Certificate for cause of death and

creation certificate is handed over by the applicant. In no circumstances, is it sent

through postal services.

Relevant Para of OA preferred by Smt. Prasanna.

1.1. The applicant submits that she is the legally wedded wife of the exemployee.

They were marred in the presence of village elders and they

have two children aged 7 and 5 respectively.

1.2. The applicant’s husband was not looking after her properly. Hence she

was compelled to stay in her mother’s house but used to go to her husband

to get financial help.

1.3. The applicant came to know that after the death of her husband, here

husband’s sister collected the death certificate from the Rly hospital and

being in grief, she was not aware of the fact.

1.4. then she submitted a representation to Sr.DPO for employment assistance

and she was orally advised to submit death certificate. Hence she submitted representation to issue her death certificate but it was denied to her.

1.5. That the respondents know that the death certificate has been given to the

ex-employees sister but deliberately they are harassing her and denying

pension & pensionary benefits.

37) Describe various features of NPS.

38) Describe about implementation of 6th PC.

39) Describe about Promotion & MACP after implementation of 6th PC.

MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS:

Give short answers :

1. What is SLP ?

2. What does ALK stand for? When is it admissible ?

3. Deemed suspension is done in which conditions?

4. What is for 16 ?

5. How is LDCE different from general or departmental selections ?

6. What is succession certificate ? when is it required ?

7. What is gallantry pass ?

8. Which cases are referred to as DPG cases ?

9. In what circumstances is o­ne eligible for ex-gratia pension ?

10. Give examples of any 2 permissible deductions from wages under the PW

Act.

11. Change of classification under HOER.

12. Job Analysis.

13. Rule 14(2) of DAR.

14. Absorption of medically decategorised staff.

15. Assessment of vacancies for a selection post.

16. Constitution of SBF committee at Divisional level.

17. Para 3.3. of official language Act.

18. What is Freedom fighter pass ?

19. How is the New Pension scheme different from the earlier scheme ?

20. What is PAN ?

21. What is Personal Pay ?

22. What is meant by Audit Para ?

23. What is para 3.3. of official language Act. ?

24. What do you understand by redundant categories ? give and example ?

25. Give two examples of non-selection posts .

26. What is the difference between removal and dismissal from service ?

27. What are the different classifications under HOER ?

28. Work Study.

29. Redeployment of surplus staff.

30. Refusal of promotion for selection post.

31. Classified seniority list.

32. Outstation (Relieving) allowance.

33. Procedure for change in name.

34. Incentives for use of Hindi.

35. What is MACP?

Write short Notes

a) Section 3(iii) of Official languages Act.

b) Hindi Training scheme.

c) Ex-gratia Pension.

d) Staff benefit fund.

e) Study Leave.

f) Grievance Redressal Machinery in railways.

g) Compassionate Allowance.

h) Workmen’s Compensation Act.

i) NBR

j ) PREM

k) CTG

l ) Railway Services(pension) Ammendment Rules, 2006.

m)Payment of Wages (Amendment ) act, 2005.

n) Bench Marking

o) Dies non.

p) Leave Not due.

q) Public-Private partnership.

r)Pre-promotional training.

s)Review of service at 55 yrs of Age.

t)Out of turns allotment of Quarter

u)Breakdown allowance

v)Talent scouting.

w) Hospital committee.

x)Provision of Pass for union office bearers.

y)Minor Penalty under D&A rules.

z) CTO

A)Railway Services(pension) Amendment Rules-2006,

B) NPS.

QUESTION BANK for the post of Junior Clerk (WA/B) Engg. Deptt.

QUESTION BANK for the post of Junior Clerk (WA/B) Engg. Deptt. in Gr. Rs. 3050-4590 (RSRP) PART-A

I. SHORT NOTES
1. Write down the 10 sentences on Railway Budget -
2. Write down the meaning in Hindi.
(a) General Manager
(b) Sickness
(c) Division
(d) Prime Minister
(e)Honest.

II. OBJECTIVE TYPE
Q.No. . Write down the meaning in English.

Q.No Write down the opposite words
(a) Night
(b) Light
(c) East
(d) Honest.
Q.No. Translate into the sentence.
(a) Table
(b) Garden
(c) Inspector
(d) Railway Minister
(e) Office.
Page 1 of 4
PART-II
I. WRITE FULL FORMS
1. TA
2. ZTC
3. JBP
4. WCR
5. PNM DRM (P)
6. WCRMS
7. WCREU
8. OLWRSBF.
9. IRCON
10. LAN
11. FA7CAO
12. D7AR
13. AIR
14. (CRPF
15. PWP
16. PIN
17. PAN
18. CRB.
19. RITES
20. RDSO
21. DCOS
22. CTR
23. PNM.

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS
(a) Shri--------------------------------- is our DRM.
(b) Shri---------------------------------- is the Governor of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Zonal office of West Central Railway is at -------------------------------
(d) Jabalpur is situated on the Bank of ---------------------------------- River
(e) Minakshidevi Tample is situated in the ----------------------------- city.

III. MATHEMATICS
Q Solve the following:-
(a) 15% of 150
(b) 211 x 101 x 302
(c) 1-1/4 + 4-3/4
(d) 2.5 x 0.25 x 1.0
(e) 4-3 -:- 10-8
15+4 23+17
Q. Find the simple intrest on Rs. 3000/- @ 12% per annum for 4 years.
Q. Calculate the under root of 1296

IV. TRANSLATTION
Q. Translate into the sentence.
(a) Table (b) Garden (c) Inspector (d) Railway Minister (e) Office.
Q. Translate in Hindi-
(a) I am promoted as clerk
(b) Bhopal is the capital of Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Train is running three hours late.
(d) Sunday is the Rest day.
(e) Independence day is celebrated on 15th August.
Q.No.. Translate in English -

V. DESCRIBE QUESTIONS
Q. Write down the 100 words on National Language Hindi.
Page 4 of 4

 

Search This Blog

Loading...

Followers