Question paper for selection for Group B post of AEE against 70 % quota
Date :27..8.2020
Time allowed : 2 hours
Maximum Marks : 100
Instructions to candidates
a. The written examination comprises of objective type multiple choice questions. Totally 100 questions are to be answered. Each question carries one mark.
b. From the set of questions from question no.1 to question no.80 (Technical subject including Official language policy), attempt any 70. Question no. 71 to 80 are on OLIC and Rajbhasha policy. If more than 70 questions are attempted in this lot of 80 questions, only the first 70 questions will be evaluated.
c. Question no. 81 to 110 (Establishment and Financial Rules etc) are compulsory.
d. There shall be negative marking for incorrect answers. One third marks allotted to each question will be deducted for every wrong answer.
e. To ensure authenticity of the answers, corrections of any type viz cutting, overwriting, scoring off a ticked answer and ticking another answer, erasing, modifying the answer in any way is not permitted. Zero marks will be given in such cases of corrections.
f. The answers should invariably be written in capital letters only in CLEAR LEGIBLE HANDWRITING (for example A,B,C, D for both English as well as Hindi versions of questions.
g. Candidate should answer the objective type questions only in the answer book supplied. Indications of the name or any other identity of the candidate in the answer book except the column provided on the fly leaf of the answer book is prohibited.
1. What is the capacity of transformer used in EOG type LHB coaches ?
A) 25 kVA B) 40 kVA C) 30 kVA D) 60 kVA
2. In the EOG power car used along with LHB coaches, what is the capacity of each diesel engine ?
A) 125 BHP B) 200 BHP C) 490 BHP D) 1000 BHP
3. In respect of diesel engine protections in EOG power cars, what does LLOP stand for ?
A) Low Level Overload Protection B) Low Lube Oil Pressure C)Low Level Oil Protection D) None of these
4. In EOG coaches, what is the voltage of emergency lighting circuit ? A) 110 V AC B) 110 V DC C) 415 V AC D) 24 V DC .
5. Which of these terms is not applicable for EOG system of train lighting and air conditioning ?
A) Minimum Speed for full output B) Cut in speed C) Rectifier Cum Regulator Unit D) All of these
6. What is the total number of V belts used for driving a 25 kW alternator in a SG type air conditioned coach ? A) 12 B) 10 C) 14 D) 6
7. In Fleming’s left hand rule for motors, the direction of which component does the index finger represent ?
A) Magnetic Field B) Thrust C) Current D) Torque
8. With which type of motor would you associate the term “commutation” ?
A) Squirrel cage induction motor B) Linear induction motor C)Wound rotor induction motor D) DC series motor
9. In an induction motor, if the rotor speed is 900 rpm and the synchronous speed is 1000 rpm, what is the slip?
A) 0.2
B) 0.5
C) 0.1
D) 1.5
10. In which of these motors would you find slip rings on the rotor ?
A) 3 phase induction motor
B) DC series motor
C) DC shunt motor
D) Wound rotor induction motor
11. In a chopper controlled DC motor, where the on time is 45 ms and off time is 15 ms and the cycle repeats, when the input to the chopper is 100 Volts, what will be average output of the chopper ?
A) 75 V
B) 60 V
C) 100 V
D) 15 V
12. When the frequency of a 4 pole motor is changed from 50 Hz to 40 Hz, by what value does the rpm drop ?
A) 200 RPM
B) 120 RPM
C) 300 RPM
D) 400 RPM
13. Which of these is not a protection for diesel engines used in EOG power cars ?
A) Engine Over Speed
C) High Water Temperature
B) Load Over Current
D) Low Lube Oil Pressure
14. What is the distance from nearest face of the mast to the centre line of the track called ?
A) Implantation
B) Encumbrance
C) Stagger
D) None of these
15. What is the rolling stock component shown in the picture ?
A) Earth Return Brush
B) Roller bearing
C) Rubber spring
D) Traction motor
16. Which component of a substation is shown in this picture ?
A) PT
B) CB
C) CT
D) LA
17. Which type of OHE is used on Indian Railways main line tracks ?
A) Stitched catenary
C) Tramway type
B) Compound Catenary
D) Simple regulated with presag
18. In respect of transformers, what does DGA stand for?
A) Differential Gas Analysis
C) Dissolved Gas Accumulation
B) Dissolved gas Analysis
D) None of these
19. In a 3 pulley arrangement on the ATD, what is the counterweight used ?
A) 400 kg
B) 1000 kg
C) 1100 kg
D) 665 kg
20. With reference to relay protections in a Traction Sub Station, what does REFR stand for?
A) Refracted Earth fault relay
B) Restricted earth fault relay
C) Reflected earthfault relay
D) Residual earth fault relay
21. What is function of the MHO relay in TSS application?
A) It's acts as a distance protection relay for feeder
B) It's a transformer protection relay
C) It protects against lightning
D) It protections against earth faults in the TSS premises
22. What is the upper limit of combined earth resistance at Traction Sub station ?
A) 1 ohm B) 2 ohm C) 8 ohms D) 0.5 ohms
23. What is the upper limit of combined earth resistance at Switching stations ?
A) 1 ohm B) 2 ohm C) 8 ohms D) 0.5 ohms
24. What is the switching post labeled “A” in the sketch below?
A) FP B) SSP C) SP D) None of these
25. What is the minimum implantation of OHE portals on platforms ?
A) 4.75 m B) 9 m C) 9 m D) 4.5 m
26. What is the material used for contact wire on Indian Railways ?
A) Cadmium Copper B) Aluminium Copper alloy C) Hard drawn copper D) Aluminium
27. Which of the of the following is not the rated capacity of the Auxiliary transformer provided in electrified areas ?
A) 10 kVA B) 25 kVA C) 5 kVA D) 2.5 kVA A
28. Which of these is not a standard voltage at which power is drawn from the State Government ownedPower Transmission Corporations to the Indian Railways’ traction substation ?
A) 400 kV B) 132 kV C) 110 kV D) 220 kV
29. Which of the following locos does not have a Co-Co arrangement of bogie ?
A) WAG5 B) WAG 7 C) WAP5 D) WAG 9
30. Which of the following locomotives has a HOG winding and inverter ?
A) WAP4 B) WAM4 C) WAG9 D) WAP7
31. Which of the following locos does not have three phase traction motors ?
A) WAG6 B) WAP5 C) WAP7 D) WAG9
32. What is the air pressure below which Pantograph lowers in an electric loco ?
A) 9 kg per sq.cm B) 8 kg per sq.cm C) 6 kg per sq.cm D) 3.5 kg per sq.cm
33. How are the traction motors of the locomotive cooled ?
A) Refrigerant cooled B) Oil Cooled C) Forced air cooled D) Self cooled without forced air
34. Which of these locos does not have a computer controlled braking system ?
A) WAG9 B) WAG7 C) WAP7 D) WAP5
35. How much is the grade and frictional resistance to be overcome by a 5000 T train, starting on a 1 in 200 up gradient with a starting frictional force of 4 kg per T of train weight ? A) 100 T B) 25 T C) 20 T D) 45 T
36. An EMU train has three motor coaches and six trailer coaches. Each Motor coach produces 20 T of starting tractive effort. Weight of the train is to be worked out assuming 70 T per motor coach and 65 T per trailer coach. What will be starting acceleration, assuming that the train is on level track and there is zero friction ? Assume acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s/s.
A) 0.5 m/s/s B) 1 m/s/s C) 0.33 m/s/s D) None of these
37. What is/are the precaution(s) to be exercised by Loco Pilot when stabling a loco ?
A) Pantograph to be lowered, loco to be deenergised including control battery B) Hand brakes/parking brakes (where available) to be applied C) Skids to be provided D) All of the above
38. What kind of batteries are used in 3 phase locomotives ?
A) Lead Acid (flooded electrolyte) B) VRLA C) Nickel Cadmium D) Lead Tin
39. In which of these locomotives would you not find a silicon rectifier ?
A) WAP7 B) WAP4 C) WAP 7 D) WAM4
40. What is the nomenclature of the traction motor over voltage relay in locomotives with DC drive ?
A) Q 44 B) QLM C) QOP D) Q 20
41. What is the upper limit of the individual earth resistance of individual earths in a 11kV/415 V substation ?
A) 10 ohms B) 5 ohms C) 8 ohms D) None of these
42. A capacitor connected in parallel with a resistive load fed from a full wave rectifier bridge does the following
A) Reduces ripple in output DC voltage B) Increases average output DC voltage because of reduction in ripple C) Both A) and B) D) None of these
43. What is the minimum height of contact wire (above rail level) below overline structures in 25 kV AC OHE to permit “C” class ODC ?
A) 6.52 m B) 4.92 m C) 4 m D) 3.97 m
44. The conservator is used in the transformer
A) To store water for transformer cooling B) To protect transformer from damage when oil expands due to rise in temperature. It stores the increasing volume of the oil. C) To provide the fresh air to cool down the oil. D).None of these
45. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
A) Reduces the weight per KVA. B) Increases weight per KVA. C) Has no relation with the weight of the transformer. D) Increases the weight per KW.
46. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used for what purpose ?
A) Give high discharge B) Produce high heads C) Pump viscous fluids D) All the above
47. Centrifugal pump is superior to a reciprocating pump because
A) It is high speed pump B) It is more economical C) It gives smooth flow D) All the above
48. A turbine is a device which converts
A) Potential energy into mechanical energy B) Potential energy into electrical energy C) Hydraulic energy to mechanical energy D) None of the above
49. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be
A) Closed B) Open C)Depends on the starting condition and the flow desired D) Partly open
50. The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the level of delivery valve is called as _________.
A) Filling B) Pumping C) Priming D) Leveling
51. Power P in a three phase circuit is (where VP, IP are phase voltage and phase current ;VL, IL are line voltage and line current ; cos Ø is the power factor)
A) P = 3 VP X IP cos Ø B) P = √3 VL X IL cos Ø C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
52. For an 8 pole induction motor supplied with power by a 6 pole alternator at 1200 rpm, the value of motor speed at a slip of 3% is
A) 800 rpm B) 873 rpm C) 400 rpm D) 900 rpm
53. If current and voltage are 90 % out of phase, the power P will be
A) Infinite B) Maximum C) Zero D) None of these
54. Alternating current applied across a conductor is
A) Uniform throughout B) More at the outer surface than at the core C) More at the core than at the outer surface D) Zero at the core
55. Relation between impedance(Z) and admittance (Y) is
A) Z = 1/Y
B) Z = 1 + Y
C) Z = 1 – Y
D) Z = Y2
56. Power factor (cos Ø) is
A) kW/kVA
B) R/Z
C) cosine of the angle between the current and voltage
D) all the above
57. If a current is passed through a conductor, which of the following phenomenon will be observed ?
A) Only a magnetic field will be developed around the conductor B) Magnetic field will be developed around the conductor and the conductor heats up C) Only heating of the conductor happens D) The molecules of the conductor attract each other
58. How much energy is stored in a magnetic field of a coil which has a self reluctance of 10 mH and current of 20 A ?
A) 1 Joule B) 10 Joules C) 2 Joules D) 20 joules
59. If a sinusoidal wave of frequency 50 Hz with 15 A rms current which of the following equations represent the wave, “t” variable being time : A) 15 sin 50 t B) 30 sin 25t C) 42.42 sin 25 t D) 21.21 Sin 314 t
60. Wheatstone bridge is used to measure
A) Current B) Voltage C) Resistance D) Power
61. As the height of the transmission line is altered, the parameter which changes is, is the
A) Conductance B) Capacitance C) Inductance D) None of these
62. Load factor is defined as
A) Maximum demand/average demand B) Average demand/ Maximum demand C) Maximum demand/Peak load D) Maximum demand/minimum load
63. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
A) Full load B) 50% load C) 80% load D) no load
64. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always shorted ?
A) Current transformer B) Voltage transformer C)Power transformer D) Step down transformer
65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the value of
A) Frequency B) Mutual Flux C)Load current D) Applied Voltage
66. The short circuit test in a transformer is performed on
A) Low voltage side B) High voltage side C) Both A and B D) None of these
67. Noise of transformer is mainly due to (other than cooling fan noise)
A) Oil hissing sound B) magnetostriction in an iron core C) Mechanical vibration D) All of the above
68. Stones are provided in the substation to
A) To provide insulation B) To avoid Fire accident during leakage of transformer oil C) To avoid growing of plants and weed D) All of the above
69. The level of illumination on surface least depends on
A) Candle power of the source B) Distance of the source C)Type of reflector used D) Ambient temperature
70. The radiant efficiency of a luminous source depends on
A) The shape of the source B) The temperature of the source C) The wavelength of the light rays D) All of the above
71. With reference to Official Languages Act, which region does Andaman and Nicobar belong to ?
A) Region B B) Region C C) Region A D) None of these
72. With reference to Official Languages Act, which of these states does not belong to region B ?
A) Tamil Nadu B) Gujarat C) Daman and Diu D) Maharashtra
73. Which Article of the Constitution deals with Language to be used in Supreme Court ?
A) Article 120 B) Article 210 C) Article 345 D) Article 348
74. When will an employee be deemed to have working knowledge of Hindi ?
A) He has passed the Matriculation or any equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as medium of instruction
B) He has passed the Matriculation or any equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects
C) He has taken Hindi as an elective in the degree examination or equivalent or higher
D) None of these
75.Which of these states does not belong to Region C as per Official Languages Act ?
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Punjab C) Tamil Nadu D) Karnataka
76. Who is the Chairperson of the Central Hindi Committee ?
A) Hon’ble Home Minister of India B) Hon’ble Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs C) Vice President of India D) Hon’ble Prime Minister of India
77. Who is the Chairperson of the Zonal Official Language Implementation Committee on Indian Railway ?
A) AGM B) GM C) MRA D) PCPO
78. When is Hindi Day celebrated every year ?
A) October 2nd B) January 26th C) August 15th D) September 14th
79.Is how many languages is the Station Name Board required to be made ?
A) English only B) Hindi only C) English, Hindi & Regional Language D) None of these
80. How many languages are there in the Eight Schedule of the Constitution ?
A) 8 B) 10 C) 22 D) 24
81. For an EHV equipment, for maintenance, first it should be isolated and connected to ground because
A) To provide low impedence B) To discharge the charging capacitance to ground C) Protection for operating personnel D) Both B) and C)
82. What is the maximum variation in frequency of supply permitted as per IE Rules ?
A) 5% B) 3 % C) 4 % D) 2.5 %
83. Every earthing system belonging to either the supplier or the consumer shall be tested for its resistance to earth on a dry day not less than
A) Once in two years B) Once in six months C) Once a year D) Once in 18 months
84. What does PAT stand for in respect of Energy Conservation Act ?
A) Power Averaging Tariff B) Performance Apportioned Tariff C) Perform, Achieve and Trade D) None of these
85. Who is the Electrical Inspector to Government of India for Rail Wheel Factory, Yelahanka ?
A) PCEE RWF B) PCEE SR C) MD BESCOM D) PCEE SWR
86. What percentage of monthly emoluments is the monthly contribution to Provident Fund ?
A) 7.00 % B) 9.99 % C) 8.33 % D) 12.5 %
87. After completion of 5 years of service how many sets of passes is a Group D employee eligible for ?
A) 3 sets B) 2 sets C) 1 set D) 4 sets
88. The standard hours of duty of intensive classification is how many hours a week ?
A) 72 hours B) 48 Hours C) 42 Hours D) 54 hours
89. Weekly rest of railway servant classified as intensive as per HOER is
A) 20 consecutive hours B) 30 consecutive hours C) 10 consecutive hours D) 40 consecutive hours
90. Name the machinery formed in Railways to maintain contact with organized labour to resolve disputes and differences arising between labour and administration
A) NMS B) SBF C) PREM D) PNM
91. What is the full form of WCA ?
A) Works and Compensation Act B) Workspot Compensation Act C) Workman Compensation Act D) None of these
92. What is the working hours per week under the Factory Act ?
A) 24 hours B) 72 hours C) 45 hours D) 48 hours
93. Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the Payment of Wages Act ?
A) Incentives B) Gratuity C) Dearness Allowance D) Basic Wages
94. In DAR, what is the time limit for appeal ?
A) 30 days B) 50 days C) 45 days D) 60 days
95. Name the online grievance redressal machinery for Railways
A) NIC B) NIVARAN C) VPGRAM D) PRAN
96. How many days of paternity leave is allowed ?
A) 30 days B) 12 days C) 10 days D) 15 days
97. Under demand for grants which demand no. relates to expenditure on repair and maintenance of permanent way and works ? A) Demand 4 B) Demand 2 C) Demand 7 D) Demand 13
98. Under revenue abstracts, which is the abstract for Operating Expenditure (Traffic and commercial) ?
A) Abstract J B) Abstract H C) Abstract L D) Abstract G
99. Under Primary Units (Objects) of Expenditure, contractual payments fall under which Primary Unit (PU)
A) PU 28 B) PU 27 C) PU 32 D) PU 29
100. Under Capital Expenditure, which Plan head is for capital expenditure on “other electrical works” ?
A) PH 17 B) PH 42 C) PH 36 D) PH 33
101. In the various stages for budget review, when does the “revised estimate” stage happen ?
A) August B) November C) March D) None of these
102. In Accounting, what term is used for Conforming factual correctness of figures ? A) Concurrence B) Vetting C) Audit D) Verification
103. What are posts created for a limited period for a specific work based on estimated provision called ?
A) Revenue posts B) Super Numerary posts C) Work charged posts D) Gazetted posts
104. Of the types of tenders mentioned hereunder, which is the most restrictive form of tendering ?
A) Single tender B) Limited tender C) Open Tender D) Global Tendering
105. What does ABT stand for in respect of purchase of electrical power ?
A) Acess Based Tariff B) Allotment Based Tariff C) Average base Tariff D) Availability Based Tariff
106. What is the operating ratio of a railway zone ?
A) Total loading done/total loading capacity B) Total Loading capacity/total loading done C) Operating expenses/Net revenue D) Net revenue/Operating Expenses
107. At what rate is overtime paid when doing more than the fixed duties under Factories Act ?
A) 2 times the ordinary wages B) 3 times the ordinary wages C) Same as the ordinary wages D) 4 times the ordinary wages
108. The person who mediates and promotes the settlement in an industrial dispute is called a
A) Conciliation Officer B) Negotiator C) Presiding Officer D) Referee
109. What amount is given as subsistence allowance ?
A) 10 % of last pay B) 25 % of last pay C) 50 % of last pay D) 75 % of last pay
110. Which of these fire extinguishers can be used for electrical fires ?
A) Water B) Foam Spray C) ABC Powder D) Wet Chemical type
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