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Q Paper & Ans - Staff & Welfare Inspector Exam Dt. 05.03.2021


 Question Paper & Answer - Staff & Welfare Inspector Exam Dt. 05.03.2021 (BCT Division)

Question. 1 - Who authorised IREC / IREM?

(A) Secretary Railway Board

(B) Member Staff

(C) Principal Chief Personnel Officer

(D) D.G. 

Answer - (A) Secretary Railway Board

Question. 2 - Who is the authority to interpret the rules given in IREC/IREM

(A) Railway Board

(B) President of India

(C) Secretary Railway Board

(D) Minister of Railway 

Answer - (B) President of Indi

Question. 3 - full form of IRSEE?

 

(A) Indian Railway Service of Electronic Engineers

(B) Indian Railway Service of Electric Engineers

(C) Indian Railway Service of Electrical Engineers

(D) Indian Railway Service of Electrical Engineer 

Answer - (D) Indian Railway Service of Electrical Engineer 

 

Question. 4 - Definition of gazetted post has-

 

(A) Selected from UPSC

(B) Recruited through the President

(C) Appointment is made by notification in Gazette of India

(D) None of above

 

Answer - (C) Appointment is made by notification in Gazette of India

 

 

Question. 5 - Supernumerary the post is generally created for

 

(A) Indefinite time period

(B) Specific time period

(C) One year

(D) None of the above

 

Answer - (B) Specific time period


Question. 6 - In Railway, Power to make rules for Gr. C and Gr. D staff lies with

(A) Railway Board

(B) DoPT

(C)Ministry of Law & justice

(D) None of the above 

 

Answer - (A) Railway Board

 

 

Question. 7 - Placement Committee is form for:

(A) Promotion

(B) Transfers/Posting

(C)Tenders

(D) MACP 

 

Answer - (B) Transfers/ Posting

 

 

Question. 8 - Who has the power to promote Gr. C staff to Gr. B officer post?

(A) Railway Board

(B) Ministry of Railways

(C) General Manager

(D) Principle head of the department 

 

Answer - (C) General Manager

 

 

Question. 9 - Full form of LDCE

(A) Limited Department Competitive Exam

(B) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination

(C) Limited Departmental Competitive Exam

(D) Limited Department Complete Examination 

 

Answer - (B) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination

 

 

Question. 10 - People holding nationality of which countries are eligible to apply for Indian Railway Services?

(A) India, Nepal, Bhutan

(B) Only India

(C)India, Nepal, Bhutan, Tibetan Refugees

(D) India, Nepal, Bhutan, Tibetan Refugees & PIOs of certain other countries 

 

Answer - (D) India, Nepal, Bhutan, Tibetan Refugees & PIOs of certain other countries 

 

 

Question. 11 - Following Word is not used in “Oath of Allegiance”

(A) Integrity

(B) Promptness

(C) Trustworthy

(D) Impartially

 

Answer - (B) Promptness

 

 Question. 12 - Article 311 is related to

(A) DAR

(B) Pay

(C)Promotion

(D) Recruitment & Training 

 

Answer - (A) DAR

 

Question. 13 - Apprentice other than governed by Apprentice Act, 1961, except as otherwise provided in his service agreement, his service shall be liable to termination on notice of

(A) One month

(B) 3 months

(C) One week

(D) None of the above 

 

Answer - (C ) One week

 

Question. 14 - What is the full form of MDDTI

(A) Multi-Disciplined Divisional Training Institute

(B) Multi-Disciplinary Division Training Institute

(C) Multi-Dimensional Divisional Training Institute

(D) Multi-Disciplinary Divisional Training Institute 

 

Answer - (D) Multi-Disciplinary Divisional Training Institute 

 

Question. 15 - All expenditure from the Staff Benefit fund shall be authorised by the Committee or by a Sub- Committee duly appointment under the provisions of Rule of IREC Vol. I.

(A) Rule 805

(B) Rule 808

(C)Rule 810

(D) None of the above 

 

Answer - (B) Rule 808

 

 

Question. 16 - A member of SBF Committee shall hold office for one year unless he is removed by the General Manager or resigns but shall be eligible for re-nomination or re-election.

(A) 2 years

(B) 3years

(C) 1 year

(D) None of the above

 

Answer - (C) 1 year

 

 

Question. 17 - Lay off means

(A) The failure, refusal or inability of an employee to work

(B) Refusal to work by a group of employees

(C) Refusal to work by all workers

(D) Failure/ refusal or inability of an employee on account of shortage of coal, power, or raw materials to give employment to a workman. 

 

Answer - (D) Failure/ refusal or inability of an employee on account of shortage of coal, power, or raw materials to give employment to a workman. 

 

 

Question. 18 - Canteen is required to be provided and maintained by Occupier for the use of workers wherein more than ...................workers are ordinarily employed.

(A) 100

(B) 200

(C) 250

(D) 500 

 

Answer - (C) 250

 

 

Question. 19 - The primary purpose of employee safety program is to preserve the employees

(A) Mental Health

(B) Physical Health

(C) Emotional Health

(D) All of the above 

 

Answer - (D) All of the above 

 

 

Question. 20 - A railway servant whose employment is intensive or Continuous shall be granted a weekly rest of not less than _____consecutive hours

(A) 12

(B) 24

(C) 36

(D) 30 

 

Answer - (D) 30 

 

 

Question. 21 - In each station or other establishments, a copy of chapter____ of the Act & HW & PR, 2005 in English, Hindi, and local language was displayed in a conspicuous place.

(A) XI

(B) XII

(C) XIV

(D) XVI

 

Answer - (C) XIV

 

Question. 22 Minimum wages Act is not applied to the staff?

 

(A) Employee in Construction, Maintenance & Repair of the Roads, Construction of buildings etc.

(B) Employee as cooks in Canteen

(C) Employee in the construction or maintenance of permanent way

(D) None of the above

 

Answer - (C) Employee in the construction or maintenance of permanent way

 

 

Question. 23 - Under which rule prescribed in the “The Railway Service (Conduct) Rules, 1966”, a railway servant is prohibited from becoming a member of political party?

(A) Rule 8

(B) Rule 4

(C) Rule 6

(D) Rule 5 

 

Answer - (D) Rule 5 

 

 

Question. 24 - If a railway servant has availed EOL and or some period of absence is treated as ‘DIES-NON’ during previous half year, the credit shall be reduced by 1/10th or the period of such EOL and or DIES-NON subject to a maximum of _____days.

(A) 15

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 20 

 

Answer - (A) 15

 

 

Question. 25 - When the first CAT has been established?

(A) 01.11.1985

(B) 11.11.1985

(C) 01.05.1985

(D) 01.01.2000

 

Answer - (A) 01.11.1985

 

 

Question. 26 - Group B gazetted officer get first class A duty pass

(A) True

(B) False 

 

Answer - (A) True

 

 

Question. 27 - Which of the following is not a method for fixing minimum wages under the Minimum wages Act, 1948?

(A) Notification Method

(B) Committee Method

(C) Bargaining Method

(D) None of the above

 

Answer - (C) Bargaining Method

 

 

 Question. 28 - Which is the full form of SLP?

(A) Special Leave Petition

(B) Supreme Leave Petition

(C) Special Legal Petition

(D) Special Learning Programme 

 

Answer - (A) Special Leave Petition

 

 

Question. 29 - Who is the Secretary of Central Staff Benefit Fund Committee?

(A) CPO

(B) DGM (G)

(C) Dy. CPO/(welfare)

(D) None of the above 

 

Answer - (C) Dy. CPO/ (Welfare)

 

Question. 30 - Where is training (classroom-based) of Indian Railway Personnel Service Officers held?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Vadodara

(C) Lucknow

(D) Delhi

 

Answer - (B) Vadodara

 

 

Question. 31 - Anticipated Vacancies for next months are considered for non-selection post.

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 6

(D) 5 

 

Answer - (B) 12

 

 

Question. 32 - Can a removed Railway Employee participate in the meeting of SBF committee?

(A) Yes

(B) No

 

Answer - (B) No

 

 

Question. 33 - Name of the online grievance redressal machinery for Railways:

(A) Nivaran

(B) CPGRAMS

(C) E-Karmic

(D) None of these

 

Answer - (A) Nivaran

 

 

Question. 34 - The minimum wages as fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 must be revised at least once in 

(A) 2 years

(B) 3 years

(C) 5 years

(D) No mention under the Act 

 

Answer - (C) 5 years

 

 

Question. 35 - Minimum Number of members required to form a selection board is:

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

 

Answer - (B) 3

 

 

Question. 36 - राजभाषा के प्रोत्साहन के लिए इनमें से कौनसी योजना/पुरस्कार घोषित किए गए हैं?

      1. प्रवीण 2. प्रबोध 3. प्राज्ञ

(A) केवल 1

(B) 1 और 2

(C) केवल 2

(D) 1,2 और 3 

 

Answer - (D) 1,2 और 3 

 

Question. 37 - Under the Minimum Wages Act, which of the following cannot be appointed by the appropriate government by notification under the official gazette for deciding claims arising out of payment of less than the minimum rates of wages?

(A) Any commissioner for Workmen’s compensation

(B) Any officer of the Central government exercising functions as a Labour Commissioner for any region

(C) Any officer of the state Government not below the rank of Labour Commissioner

(D) Any officer not less than the rank of District Magistrate 

 

Answer - (D) Any officer not less than the rank of District Magistrate 

 

 

Question. 38 - Staff falling in “Continuous” category are allowed _______ hours of rest every week.

(A) 48

(B) 24

(C) 30

(D) 36 

 

Answer - (C) 30

 

 

Question. 39 - Under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a child is one who has not completed his

(A) 18 years

(B) 16 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 14 years 

 

Answer - (D) 14 years 

 

 

Question. 40 - Joining time for more than 1000 km but less than 2000 km is

(A) 10 days

(B) 15 days

(C) 12 days

(D) 14 days 

 

Answer - (C) 12 days

 

 

Question. 41 - Running allowance is described in which chapter of IREM?

(A) 5

(B) 9

(C) 3

(D) 13

 

Answer -  (B) 9

 

 

Question. 42 - Retention of Railway quarter in case of Death is permissible for _months

(A) 24

(B) 20

(C) 18

(D) 12 

 

Answer - (A) 24

 

 

Question. 43 - General Manager has the power the grant _____ years of Hospital leave to railway servant.

(A) 5 years

(B) 6 years

(C) 2 years

(D) unlimited 

 

Answer - (D) unlimited 

 

 

Question. 44 - Full form of HRMS?

 

 (A) Human Resource Management System

(B) Human Resource Managerial System

(C) Human Research Management System

(D) Human Resource and Management System

 

Answer - (A) Human Resource Management System

 

Question. 45 - What is the maximum percentage of commutation of Pension?

(A) 40

(B) 60

(C) 75

(D) 80 

 

Answer - (A) 40

 

Question. 46 - How much money is reserved for ‘Women Empowerment' through SBF?

(A) 18%

(B) 27%

(C) 22%

(D) 23% 

 

Answer - (D) 23% 

 

 

Question. 47 - Under CGA, the minimum required (for other than widow) educational qualification for getting a Gr. ‘C’ post is

(A) 10th

(B) 12th

(C)Graduation

(D) 8th 

 

Answer - (B) 12th

 

 

Question. 48 - TA comes under income tax net

(A) yet

(B) not in any situation

(C)in some situation

(D) None of these 

 

Answer - (B) not in any situation

 

 

Question. 49 - Function of SF 14 is

(A) To appoint enquiry officer

(B) To give charge sheet to retired railway servant

(C) To suspend

(D) None of these 

 

Answer - (B) To give charge sheet to retired railway servant

 

 

Question. 50 - Which of the following legislations apply to unorganized sector workers in India?

(A) Minimum Wages Act

(B) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

(C)Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

(D) All of the above

 

Answer - (D) All of the above

 

 

Question. 51 - राजभाषा अधिनियम 1963 कब पारित हुआ?

(A) 15 मई 1963

(B) 26 अगस्त 1963

(C) 10 मई 1963

(D) 12 जनवरी 1963

 

Answer - (C) 10 मई 1963

 

 

Question. 52 - In which year did the payment of wages act come into force?

 

(A) 23rd April, 1925

(B) 28th March, 1940

(C) 23rd April, 1936

(D) 28th March, 1937 

 

Answer - (C) 23rd April, 1936

 

 

Question. 53 - Staff in “Excluded” category are eligible for NDA.

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C)With prior permission of competent authority

(D) None of above 

 

Answer - (B) Incorrect

 

 

Question. 54 - Ayurvedic/Homeopathy physician who works for 4 hours every day will be paid Rs. 9000/- as honorarium.

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) With DA

(D) DRM decides 

 

Answer - (B) Incorrect

 

 

Question. 55 - As per Railway Services (Liberalised Leave) Rules, 1949, casual Leave can be followed by

(A) Leave on an average pay

(B) Maternity leave

(C) Child care leave

(D) Quarantine leave

 

Answer - (D) Quarantine leave

 

 

Question. 56 - The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is an example of  

(A) Regulative Labour Legislation

(B) Protective Labour Legislation

(C)Social Security Legislation

(D) Welfare Legislation 

 

Answer - (B) Protective Labour Legislation

 

 

Question. 57 - How many School Cheque passes can be issued in a year?

(A) 5

(B) 7

(C)  4

(D) 3

 

Answer - (D) 3

 

 

Question. 58 - The special Provisions relating to Lay-off, retrenchment, and closure as given under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 apply to those establishments where at least.

(A) 100 workers are employed

(B) 50 workers are employed

(C) 200 workers are employed

(D) 500 workers are employed 

 

Answer - (A) 100 workers are employed

 

 

Question. 59 - Manpower Planning facilitates

(A) Promotion at right time

(B) Surrender of posts

(C) Recruitment

(D) All of above

 

Answer - (D) All of above

 

 

Question. 60 - Financial assistances from “Railway Minister’s Welfare and Relief Fund” is granted only for sickness of Railwaymen or their dependents

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) In specific situation

(D) In situation of rail accident only 

 

Answer - (B) Incorrect

 

 

Question. 61 - इनमें से कौन राज्य संघ शासित प्रदेश, राजभाषा के अधिनियम अनुसार क्षेत्र के अंदर नहीं आता हैं?

(A) बिहार

(B) महाराष्ट्र

(C) हरियाणा

(D) उत्तर प्रदेश 

 

Answer - (B) महाराष्ट्र

 

 

Question. 62 - Concession of education assistance, reimbursement of tuition fees and hostel subsidy will be available up to _____ (no. of) children

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 1 any number

(D) Any number 

 

Answer - (B) 2

 

 

Question. 63 - ‘First come last go and last come first go’ is the principle of

(A) Lay-off

(B) Closure

(C) Retrenchment

(D) Dismissal

 

Answer - (C) Retrenchment

 

Question. 64 - Gazetted railway servants can become members of Consumer Co-operative Society but cannot be elected as Office bearers. Give your views on this.

(A) Yes

(B) No

(C)They cannot be member

(D) They can be both, there is no restriction

 

Answer - (D) They can be both, there is no restriction

 

 

Question. 65 - The total amount of deductions from wages of employees should not exceed -----percentage.

(A) 50%

(B) 70%

(C) 25%

(D) 40% 

 

Answer - (A) 50%

 

Question. 66 - Full form of PREM

 

(A) Participating of Railway Employees in Management

(B) Participation of Rail Employees in Management

(C) Participation of Railway Employees in Management

(D) Participation of Railway Employee in Management 

 

Answer - (C) Participation of Railway Employees in Management

 

Question. 67 - Which of these is the purpose of recruitment?

 

(A) Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit

(B) Selecting right person for the right job

(C) Help the firm create more culturally diverse work-force

(D) None of the above

 

Answer - (B) Selecting right person for the right job

 

 

Question. 68 - Under SBF scheme, amount reserved for giving scholarship for technical education to children of SC employee is

(A) 15%

(B) 8%

(C)22%

(D) None of above 

 

Answer - (A) 15%

 

 

Question. 69 - The disciplinary Authority can never act as Inquiry Officer. Give your views.

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) with prior approval

(D) Possible in case of SAG 

 

Answer - (B) Incorrect

 

 

Question. 70 - The Workmen’s compensation Act 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965, and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948

(A) Together can be applicable

(B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time

(C)The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.

(D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are Applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable. 

 

Answer - (D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are Applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable. 

 

 

Question. 71 - As per 7th CPC, what is the percentage of “non-practicing allowance”?

(A) 15

(B) 25

(C) 20

(D) 10 

 

Answer - (C) 20

 

 

Question. 72 - Casual Labour can get benefit of MACP.

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C)With prior approval

(D) For those who get less than minimum wage 

 

Answer - (B) Incorrect

 

 

Question. 73 - When the people involved in the process comprehend unlikable results from their interactions with the environment, it is specifically called.

(A) Time stress

(B) Anticipatory Stress

(C)Positive Stress

(D) Negative Stress 

 

Answer - (B) Anticipatory Stress

 

 

Question. 74 - DCRG of retired Employee is stopped till he vacates the quarter.

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) It can be given with prior approval of DRM

(D) None of the above

 

Answer - (A) Correct

 

 

Question. 75 - Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, Which of the following are considered as dependent of deceased workman for the purpose of paying compensation?

(i) A minor brother or an unmarried sister or a widowed sister

(ii) a widowed daughter-in-law

(iii) a minor child of a pre-deceased son

(iv) a minor child of a pre-deceased daughter where no parent of the child is alive

(v) a paternal grandparent if no parent of the workman is alive;

(A) i, ii & iii

(B) I, ii, iii & iv

(C) i, ii, iii, & v

(D) i, ii, iii, iv & v 

 

Answer - (D) i, ii, iii, iv & v 

 

 

Question. 76 - How many times PNM meetings are organised in a year at divisional level?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) Unlimited 

 

Answer - (B) 6

 

 

Question. 77 - Study leave is counted as service for the purpose of granting increment.

(A) Yes

(B) No

(C)In case of medical education only

(D) with special approval of MR

 

Answer - (A) Yes

 

 

Question. 78 - Choose the correct option where no workmen shall go on a strike in breach of contract and no employer of any such workmen shall declare a lock-out during.

(A) The pendency of conciliation proceedings before aboard and 7 days after the conclusion of such proceedings.

(B) The pendency of proceedings before labour court, tribunal, or national tribunal and 2 months, after the conclusion of such proceedings.

(C)During any period in which a settlement or award is in operation, in respect of any of the matters covered by the settlement or award.

(D) All of the above. 

 

Answer - (D) All of the above. 

 

 

Question. 79 - संसद में प्रयोग होने वाली भाषा का प्रावधान संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद में किया गया हैं

(A) अनुच्छेद 110

(B) अनुच्छेद 20

(C) अनुच्छेद 18

(D) अनुच्छेद 120 

 

Answer - (D) अनुच्छेद 120 

 

 

Question. 80 - Which form is issued for appointment of Inquiry officer under DAR rules?

(A) SF-1

(B) SF-5

(C) SF-11

(D) SF-7 

 

Answer - (D) SF-7 

 

 

Question. 81 - Will a workman be entitled to compensation if he does not present himself for work at all establishment at the appointed time during normal working hours at least once a day?

(A) Yes

(B) No 

 

Answer - (B) No 

 

 

Question. 82 - The present wage ceiling per month for the purpose of the payment of wages act, 1936 is

(A) Rs. 10,000/-

(B) Rs. 15,000/-

(C) Rs. 18,000/-

(D) Rs.20,000/-

 

Answer - (C) Rs. 18,000/-

 

 

Question. 83 - Which Section of The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 defines the term “Child”

(A) Section 1

(B) Section 2(i)

(C) Section 2(ii)

(D) Section 2(iii)

 

Answer - (C) Section 2(ii)

 

 

Question. 84 - Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?

(A) Basic Wage

(B) Dearness Allowance

(C) Incentive

(D) Gratuity 

 

Answer - (D) Gratuity 

 

 

Question. 85 - As per Factories act, “Adult” means a person who has completed ____ years of age.

(A) 15

(B) 16

(C) 17

(D) 18

 

Answer - (D) 18

 

 

Question. 86 - The President of India makes DAR rules in exercise of the powers conferred by the proviso of Article______ of the Constitution of India.

(A) Article 308

(B) Article 309

(C) Article 310

(D) Article 311

 

Answer - (D) Article 311

 

 

Question. 87 - Communication from subordinate to superior is called-----

(A) Lateral communication

(B) Downward Communication

(C) Upward Communication

(D) Horizontal Communication

 

Answer - (C) Upward Communication

 

 

Question. 88 - Gr. D staff with GP 1800 are entitled to which type of quarter?

(A) Type II

(B) Type I

(C)Type III

(D) Type IV

 

Answer - (B) Type I

 

 

 

Question. 89 - Which of the following is machinery for settlement of industrial disputes?

(A) Indian Labour Conference

(B) Joint Management Council

(C) Industrial Tribunal

(D) Standing Labour Committees

 

Answer - (C) Industrial Tribunal

 

 

Question. 90 - _______is a scientific and Systematic effort to modify the characteristics of an employee’s job.

(A) Job redesign

(B) Time-out

(C) Mentoring

(D) Employee Empowerment 

 

Answer - (A) Job redesign

 

 

Question. 91 - Assertion (A): Provisions of Employees’ compensation Act and Maternity Benefit Act d not apply to all industries.

        Reason (R): Employees’ compensation Act is a Comprehensive social security legislation.

 

(A) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(B) (A) is right, but (R) does not related to the (A)

(C) (A) and (R) is right and (R) Validates the (A)

(D) (A) and (R) are wrong 

 

Answer - (A) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

 

 

Question. 92 - The children education allowance per child per year shall be Rs. __________

(A) Rs. 24,000

(B) Rs. 27,000

(C) Rs. 28,500

(D) None of above

 

Answer - (B) Rs. 27,000

 

 

Question. 93 - Who is the Secretary of PNM meeting at Railway Board Level?

(A) Member Staff

(B) Chairman Railway Board

(C) Deputy Director (Establishment)

(D) None of the above 

 

Answer - (C) Deputy Director (Establishment)

 

 

Question. 94 - Which of the following is an illegal industrial action as per Industrial Dispute Act?

(A) Mutual Insurance

(B) Collective Bargaining

(C) Luck out

(D) Gherao 

 

Answer - (D) Gherao 

 

 

Question. 95 - The maximum the compassionate allowance which shall be granted to an employee who is removed from service is ___of compensation pension.

(A) Full

(B) 3/4th

(C) 2/3rd

(D) 1/2       

 

Answer - (C) 2/3rd

 

   

Question. 96 - The _____of Railway Production units have been appointed as “Occupiers” of the respective units in terms of the provisions of the Factories Ad. 1948. (MC23)

(A) General Manager

(B) Chief Personnel Officers

(C) Chief Mechanical Engineers/ CWM

(D) Chief Security Commissioners 

 

Answer - (C) Chief Mechanical Engineers/ CWM

 

 

Question. 97 - “Tata Motors refused to accept an order of 1000 truck placed by Pakistan” This is an example of ----

(A) Ethics

(B) Governing Principles

(C) Corporate Social Responsibility

(D) Corporate Governance 

 

Answer - (A) Ethics

 

 

Question. 98 - Memorandum का हिन्दी अनुवादन क्या हैं

(A) अभिलेख

(B) इतिवृत

(C) ज्ञापन

(D) पत्रिका 

 

Answer - (C) ज्ञापन

 

 

Question. 99 - Age relaxation for OBC candidates for recruitment in Government service is

(A) 3 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 6 years

(D) 4 years 

 

Answer - (A) 3 years

 

 

Question. 100 - As per Factories Act, a factory does not include which among the following? [Sec2 (m)]

(i) A mine subject to the operation of the Mines Act, 1952

(ii) A mobile unit belonging to the Armed Forces of the Union

(iii) A railway running shed

(iv) A hotel, restaurant or eating place

 

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C)1, 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 4 only

 

Answer - (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

 

Question. 101 - Exemptions from disclosure of information are mentioned in which section of Right to information Act?

(A) Section 6

(B) Section 8

(C) Section 9

(D) None of above

 

Answer - (B) Section 8

 

 

Question. 102 - Which among the following statement relating to leadership is false?

 

(A) Leadership is a process of influence

(B) Leadership is goal-oriented

(C) Leadership is bossism

(D) A leader must have followers

 

Answer - (C) Leadership is bossism

 

 

Question. 103 - Retired Gr. Railway employee is charged Rs. ______ for availing the facility of Holiday Home.

(A) Rs.60

(B) Rs.100

(C) Rs.50

(D) None of these

 

Answer - (A) Rs. 60

 

 

Question. 104 - Under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, a child one who has not completed his

(A) 18 years

(B) 16 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 14 years

 

Answer - (D) 14 years

 

Question. 105 - बी क्षेत्र के केंद्र सरकार की कार्यालाओ में आपस में संपर्क निम्नलिखित भाषा में होगा 

(A) हिन्दी अथवा इंग्लिश

(B) केवल हिन्दी

(C) केवल इंग्लिश

(D) केवल प्रादेशिक भाषा

 

Answer - (A) हिन्दी अथवा इंग्लिश

 

 

Question. 106 - उड़ीसा राज्य कौन से क्षेत्र में आता हैं?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

 

Answer - (C) C

 

 

Question. 107 - The exhaustion suffered by an individual due to continuous exposure to a stress-causing situation is normally known as

(A) Entrapment

(B) Tiredness

(C) Irritability

(D) Burn-out

 

Answer - (D) Burn - out

 

 

Question. 108 - केन्द्रीय हिन्दी समिति के अध्यक्ष कौन होते हैं?

(A) गृहमंत्री

(B) रेल मंत्री

(C) शिक्षा मंत्री

(D) प्रधानमंत्री

 

Answer - (D) प्रधानमंत्री

 

 

Question. 109 - निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा राज्य क्षेत्र के अंतर्गत आता हैं?

(A) गुजरात

(B) हरियाणा

(C) केरल

(D) बिहार

 

Answer - (A) गुजरात

 

 

Question. 110 - राजभाषा के आधार पर देश को कितने क्षेत्रों में बाटा गया हैं

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C)4

(D) 4 

Answer - (D) 3



 

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INDEX II

Q Bank - Establishment / Personnel Dept. (82) Q Bank - Electrical Engineering (79) Q Bank - OS / Clerk / Typist (71) Q B Engg (P Way & Work) (67) Q BANK - Operating (61) Group 'B' Exam (60) Q Bank - APO ( Asst. Personnel Officer) (57) QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER (55) Q B Establishment (47) Q Bank - Goods Guards (45) Q Bank - OHE/TRD/PSI (36) Q B - CIVIL ENGINEERING (AEN) (27) Q B - Welfare Inspector (27) Q BANK - C & W ( Carriage & Wagon ) (25) Q Bank - Account (24) Q BANK - LOCO (23) Q BANK Exam - Station Master (23) Q Bank - Commercial (21) Q Bank - AOM (19) Q BANK - Station Master (18) Q Bank - S & T (14) 1. Syllabus (12) Q Bank - D & AR (Discipline and Appeals Rule) (12) Q Bank - Medical (12) Q Bank - Posts (Civil Engineering & P way) Dept (12) 2. Q Bank - Group D To C (11) INDEX (11) QB - ENGINEERING ( MECHANICAL ) (11) Q Bank - LOCO (Diesel) (9) Q Bank - ACM (Assistant Commercial Manager) (9) Q BANK - Jr Engineer ( Diesel Mechanical ) (8) Q BANK - LOCO (AC) (8) Q Bank - Law Assistant (8) Q Bank - AME/AWM (7) Q Bank - Group D To C (6) Q Bank - Stores (5) RRB EXAM (5) NTPC (4) Q Bank - ADSTE / ASTE (4) Q Bank - CLI (4) Q Bank - General Knowledge (4) Q Bank - Publicity Inspector (4) Q Bank - Rajbhasha (राजभाषा) (4) Question & Answer (4) Q Bank - AEE (3) Q Bank - Appointment On Compassionate Ground Exam (3) Q Bank - Commercial Instructor Exam (3) Q Bank - Engineering (Bridge) (3) Q Bank - IT (3) Q Bank - Protocol Inspector (3) Q Bank - RPF Department (3) Short Notes (3) Q BANK - Jr Engineer ( Mechanical ) (2) Q Bank - C & M (2) Q Bank - Carpenter (2) Q Bank - General English (2) Q Bank - Jr Engineer (Tele) (2) Q Bank - Ministerial Staff (2) Q Bank -Section Controler (2) Video (2) ABB (1) FAQ (1) GDCE Exam (1) IRMS (Indian Railway Management Service (1) JUNIOR ENGINEER (Non -AC) GRADE - II (1) Minimum Wages Act (1) Project & Planning (1) Q BANK & Answer - C & W ( Carriage & Wagon ) (1) Q Bank - Instructor (1) Q Bank - AMM (1) Q Bank - All Department (1) Q Bank - Ballast Train Checker (1) Q Bank - CCTC (1) Q Bank - Complaints Inspector (1) Q Bank - GK (Computer) (1) Q Bank - Leave Rule (1) Q Bank - Mason (1) Q Bank - Maths (1) Q Bank - NPS (New Pension Scheme) (1) Q Bank - OS / Clerk Typist (1) Q Bank - Pass Rule (1) Q Bank - Planning Inspector (1) Q Bank - Railway (GK) (1) Q Bank - Stenographer (1) Q Bank - Track Machine (1) Q Bank - Traffic Costing Inspector (1) Question Bank - Technicians of TLAC Group. (1) Short Notes - Establishment (1) Short Notes - Operating / Traffic (1)