Indian Railway Question Bank: QB - ENGINEERING ( MECHANICAL ) INDIAN RAILWAY

QB - ENGINEERING ( MECHANICAL ) INDIAN RAILWAY

South Eastern Railway

Mechanical department

Part-A

Q1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate comments:

1 x 25 = 25

i. NSR No. Bears---------digit number.-

ii. Consignee code bears ------ digit numbers

iii. PL No. bears ----- ---digit number.

iv. Budget estimate is prepared in the month of ---------

v. Power of CME to sanction M&P item up to Rs.---------

vi. There is a provision of Child Care leave for an woman employee for a total period of 730 days in her entire period of service.

vii. Standard Form No. --------- is used for issuance of Minor Penalties.

viii. Expanded form of MACP is -----------

ix. There are ------- sections in O.L Act

x. Section --------- of O.L. Act is related with Bilingual (Hindi & English) use

xi. Moment of inertia of a hollow sphere having mass “M” and radius “R” about an axis passing through its centre is ----

xii. ------- Cycle has the maximum efficiency among all thermodynamic cycles under the same temperatures limit

xiii. A member of a machine which transmits power without any deformation is called ------- -------- xiv. Dimensional unit of surface tension is ----- ---

xv. Pressure tubes are generally joined by ------------ welding

xvi. Welding process, where two pieces of metal of same cross section are gripped together and pressed while heat is generated in the contact surface is called-----------------

xvii. Universal chuck comprises-----------no of jaws.

xviii. Nitriding is a ------------ process of heat treatment.

xix. Ideal fluid offers --------resistance against shear force.

xx. Power delivered by the engine is the product of velocity and ------------

xxi. A metal is said to be cold worked if it is mechanically processed below -------

xxii. During gas cutting process, metal is cut due to -------of O2

xxiii. Full form of DVD is ---------------

xxiv. MS-Word is an word processing -------------

xxv. 101010 in binary number system is equivalent to --------- in decimal number system

Q2. State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”. 1 x 25 = 25

i. Frequency of verification for “A” category item under ABC analysis is 1 year.

ii. The degree of control should be rigorous for “A” items & should be minimum for “C” item items. iii. Sl No. 2g (Works matter) of USOP deals with the sanction of Estimate for Sanctioned work.

iv. CPDE is to publish notification of Open Tender in Railway.

v. At Railway Board level, PNM is held once in four months.

vi. The staff excluded is eligible for night duty allowance.

vii. All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on envelopes and other stationery etc., shall be in bilingual.

viii. Expanded form of HOER is Hour of Employment Rules.

ix. New pension scheme has been started from 01-01-2006.

x. As per O.L. regions in India, West Bengal is in "B" region.

xi. Devnagari is the script of Hindi xii. Hard disk is an example of primary memory unit.

xiii. MS-Office is operating system software.

xiv. Otto cycle comprises two isobaric processes and two isothermal processes.

xv. When length of the simple pendulum tends to infinity, its time period also tends to infinity.

xvi. A spring is cut into three equal pieces and found spring constant of each spring 1/3rd times that of original spring constant.

xvii. Surface tension tries to minimize the surface area.

xviii. As the percentage of carbon in steel increases, critical temperature decreases.

xix. Inclusion is a welding defect. xx. Mechanical advantage for lifting water with pulley rope arrangement is less than 1 xxi. GM can sanction RSP item up to Rs 10 lakh

xxii. Magnetite is carbonate ore of iron.

xxiii. Power required by an water pump is directly proportional to square of the velocity of discharge. xxiv. Compression ratio for diesel cycle is 4:1 xxv. Rolling friction develops due to mechanical interlocking between two contact surfaces.

xxvi. The moment of a force about an axis is vector. xxvii.

xxvii) In SHM, frequency of maximum K.E. is twice that of the frequency of the cycle. xxviii.

xxviii) Buna-S is a polymer of Natural rubber. xxix.

xxiv) Composite brake block is introduced to increase the life of brake blocks. xxx.

xxv) Specific Fuel Oil consumption indicates the overall health of Diesel engine.

Part-B Answer any five questions from the following: 10 x 5 = 50

Q3 .How will you comply with the following.-

a) A mild steel shaft is to be made into power transmitting shaft.

b) Density of steel ingot is to be increased.

c) Seamless copper pipe has been hardened and it is to be put into service.

d) Metal surface is to be made very smooth reflective surface.

e) 1000 Kgf load is to be lifted by an effort of 10 Kgf.

Q4. Write short notes on the followings:

a) MIG welding

b) Piercing.

c) Polymer .

d) Babbit metal

e) Metacentre

Q5. Explain different processes involved in Carnot Cycle and utility of this cycle. Also explain Why it is a theoretical cycle?

Q6. Explain the objectives of lubrication. Describe any two types of lubrication system.

Q7. Describe the following heat treat processes:

a) Annealing.

b) Normalising.

c) Hardening.

d) Tempering

e) Nitriding

Q8. What do you mean by viscosity? How does viscosity play a significant role in lubrication? In the light of viscosity, describe terminal velocity of a body moving in a viscous fluid.

Q9. Normal reaction acting on the wheels of a coach is 1000Kgf when it is at rest. This reaction force shifts forward and makes an angle of 600 with the horizontal when the coach is in forward motion. Calculate the rolling friction experienced by the coach.

Full Marks: 100 03 hours Section-A

Q.1. Expand the following abbreviations:- 20 Marks

(a).P.E.T

(b). M.A.C.P.S

(c). R.E.L.H.S

(d) R.V.N.L

(e).P.R.E.M

(f). H.O.E.R

(g). D.B.M.S

(h) C.O.F.M.O.W

(i) S.L.P

(j). A.F.R.E.S

Q.2. Fill in the blanks: 15 marks

(a).CGEIS had come in to force with effect from ------------------

(b).The term ‘retrenchment’ is defined in ---------------------- Act

(c ). In all recruitment grades, probation period is------------------

(d). The quantum of pension available to the old pensioners shall be increased by ----------% Of basic pension, if the age of pensioner is between 85 years to less than 90 years.

(e) Women employees having minor children may be granted child care leave by an authority competent ------------- to sanction.

(f). ------------ Script has been adopted for the official language of the Union.

(g). Any new face substitute should be appointed only with the prior personal approval of -------

(h). A Railway employee desires to apply for a post in a private concern, he should first offer to -------------- from Railway service.

(i). Hospital Leave shall be granted to a railway servant other than -------------

(j). Payment of compensation shall be made through -------------- in respect of a workman whose injury has resulted in death.

(k). The general principles that may be followed in determining the seniority of non-gazetted Railway servants are enumerated in Chapter -------------of the IREM, Vol.I.

(l). Maximum marks allotted in selections to posts within Group C for record of service shall be ------------------

(m). Withdrawal from PF on marriage account may be granted as a special case up to ---------- months emoluments in the case of marriage of a female.

(n). Railway servants employed in a confidential capacity are classified as ------------as per HOER (o). Attendant means ----------- as per pass rules.

Q3. Write true or false 15 marks.

(a). A supernumerary post, on vacation by the incumbent, can be filled by another officer in the order of seniority.

(b). At Railway Board level, PNM is held once in four months

(d). Principles of averaging will not apply to Running staff

(e). The staff excluded are eligible for night duty allowance

(f). An employee removed from service is entitled for pension

(g). All post retirement complimentary passes issued to the eligible Indian Railway personnel would be valid over Konkan Railway.

(h). All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on envelopes and other stationery etc., shall be in bilingual

(i). A railway servant is not entitled to HRA if his spouse is allotted with Government accommodation at the same station.

(j). If the documents cited in the charge sheet are not enclosed to it at the time of serving the same, it shall lead to procedural lapse.

(k). When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, age relaxation is not allowed.

(l). Trade Union member can act as Defense counsel in a DAR case against Gazetted Officers.

(m). Withholding of increments for failure to pass any departmental examination is not a penalty under D& A Rules, 1968

(n). Loco Running sheds are factories within the meaning of Factory under Factories Act, 1948

(o). Medical allowance is granted @ Rs. 300/- p.m. to Railway Pensioner/Family Pensioner residing beyond 2.5km away from Railway Hospitals.

Section B Answer any five of the following: 10x5=50 Marks.

Q.1 A Chief Office Supdt., whose pay Band and Grade Pay are Rs.21940/- and 4600 respectively with effect from 01.07.2012, retires from service on attaining the age of superannuation on 31.05.2013. He has rendered 38. 1/2 years of qualifying service. Please workout the following (a).Monthly Pension & family Pension

(b). Retirement Gratuity

(c ). Commutation of pension (Commutation Value is 8.194)

(d).Encashment of LAP assuming that he has 300 days of LAP on the date of his retirement.

Q.2. What are the provisions of the Official Language Rules 1976 regarding communications between various central government offices.?

Q.3. What are the entitlements of Gold, Silver and Bronze pass holders under pass Rules?

Q.4. What is the procedure for imposing of Major penalty under Rule 9 of DAR 1968?

Q.5.Mention ant 10 (ten) Acts names under Labour- Laws ?

Q.6.What are the various relaxations/concessions available to candidates belonging to SC/ST communities in direct recruitment?

Q.7. Answer ant two of the following:-

(a). Mention any five situations where HRA is not payable to an employee?

(b). Indicate any five categories of non-technical posts for which direct recruitment is done though RRB and for which minimum qualification is graduation.

(c ). What ate the duties and powers of the appellate authority under RS(D&A) Rules, 1968? ----------

1.Fill in the blanks. 20x1=20

a) Maximum permissible earth resistance for domestic installation is _____.

b) Pump capacity is expressed in _____.

c) For electrical fire the type of fire extinguisher to be used is _____.

d) The statutory limit of voltage variation in consumer terminal is _____.

e) The commutator segments of a DC motor are made of _____ material.

f) Silicon steel is commonly used for armature core because of _____ & _______.

g) A consumer is connected to the distributor by means of _____.

h) ______ of each railway zone acts as the electrical inspector to the GOI for the railways.

i) As per ER, the minimum clearance of the lowest conductor from the ground is ______.

j) The MFO of TL coach alternator is _____.

k) Soft solder is an alloy of ______ & ______.

l) The PCD of AC coach alternator pulley is ______.

m) 1 Ton of refrigeration is equal to _____ Kcal.

n) The chemical formula for R134 is _____.

o) The input of RMPU Inverter is ____ V DC and output is ____ V DC.

p) The type of expansion device used in room air conditioner is _____.

q) The pH value of DM water is ______.

2) Answer briefly 10x2=20

a) What is priming?

b) What is pre cooling?

c) What is gimbal ring?

d) What are the indications of a fully charged cell?

e) What is EFT?

f) What is IGBT?

g) What is VRLA?

h) What are the usage of Auto Transformer?

i) What is relative humidity?

j) What is Vane relay?

3) Write True or False 10x1=10

a) PTFE stand as Poly Tetra Fluoro Ethylene.

b) The Curri temperature of Iron is 14000 C

c) Blow Out coil is used in electrical contactor for extinguish the arc.

d) Max. Permissible temperature rise of H class insulation 2000 C.

e) In BDV test two electrodes are adjusted to 5 mm gap.

f) For computer memory /Transformer core hard magnetic materials are used.

g) Main disadvantage of Auto transformer is, it cannot be used where transformation ratio is _____

h) smaller than one. i) Buckling is one of the defects of lead acid battery.

j) Trickle charging is 15% of normal charging rate.

k) Specific gravity of fully charged cell is 1200.

4) Classify the insulating material on the basis of their thermal stability in service. Also describe the various insulating materials used for manufacture of transformer. 10

5) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of commonly used pumps in railways. 10

6) Explain the working of the vapour compression system in room air conditioners. 10

7) Write short notes on –

a) Evaporator

b)ERRU 10

8) Write the maintenance practices to be adopted for TL batteries. 10

9) Draw a schematic diagram to show the power distribution in a 11/0.4 kv sub-stn.

10 ------------ -SIV South Eastern Railway Mechanical department

1. Fill in the blanks 1x20=20

a) The maximum air pressure required for WRA is ___________ kg/cm2

b) Prescribed leakage rate while conducting leakage test on a coach is _________

c) The working strength of CBC used on coaches is ____________

d) The lateral clearance between side frame and axle box adopter casnub 22 W is________

e) The brake cylinder vent plug is used for _______________.

f) “C” class ODC shall be moved during _____________

g) The water tank capacity of ICF coach is ___________ litre

h) The condemning limit of BLC wagon wheel diameter is________________

i) The side bearer used in BLC wagon is ___

j) The diameter of LHB Bk. Cylinder is ______

k) The quantity of oil in each side bearer of an ICF trolley is___________

l) The amount of grease in an axle box of spherical roller bearing is _________

m) The working strength of CBC used on coaches is ____________

n) The lateral clearance between side frame and axle box adopter casnub 22 W is________

o) The brake cylinder vent plug is used for _______________.

p) The size of brake cylinder in bogie mounted system is _____________

q) The water tank capacity of ICF coach is ___________ litre

r) The condemning limit of BLC wagon wheel diameter is________________

s) The side bearer used in BLC wagon is ___

t) The BSS hangers of an ICF bogie are fitted at an angle of ________with vertical

Q 2. Match the following 2x5=10

a) FIAT BOGIE i) AC Chair Car

b) HYBRID Coach ii) AC coaches

c) RMPU iii) LHB Coach

d) CBC iv) 160 Km.

e) Reclining Mechanism v) Air Spring

.3. State True or False 1x20 = 20

a) The hot box temperature is 80 degree centigrade.

b) The number of roller provided in each row CTRB is 24

c) The root radius of worn wheel profile used on CASNUB bogie is 13 mm

d) Brake cylinder charging time in coaching stock during full service application is 3 to 5 sec

e) The standard gap between wheel and brake block in BOX wagon is 6.25 mm

f) The BSS hangers of ICF bogie are fitted at an angle with the vertical is 10degree.

g) The number of roller provided in each row CTRB is 24

h) The root radius of worn wheel profile used on CASNUB bogie is 13 mm

i) Brake cylinder charging time in coaching stock during full service application is 3 to 5 sec

j) The standard gap between wheel and brake block in BOX wagon is 6.25 mm

k) Frequency of verification for “A” category item under ABC analysis is 1 year.

l) The degree of control should be rigorous for “A” items & should be minimum for “C” item items. m) Sl No. 2g (Works matter) of USOP deals with the sanction of Estimate for Sanctioned work.

n) CPDE is to publish notification of Open Tender in Railway.

o) At Railway Board level, PNM is held once in four months.

p) The staff excluded is eligible for night duty allowance.

q) All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on envelopes and other stationery etc., shall be in bilingual.

r) Expanded form of HOER is Hour of Employment Rules.

s) New pension scheme has been started from 01-01-2006.

t) As per O.L. regions in India, West Bengal is in "B" region.

Group-B Answer any five of the following

1(a) What are the salient features of Air Suspension system ?

(b) Draw a schematic diagram of air suspension system and label its parts.

2. (a) List out a comparative feature/technical data of ICF and LHB coaches.

(b) How heat and sound is managed in LHB Coaches ?-roll mechanism fitted in LHB coaches ?

3.(a) What do you mean by ODC ? Classify the different classes of ODC with their salient features.

(b) What is the examination pattern of CC rake ? 5+5

4. Write short notes on the following (any four)

(a) IRCA

(b) DRS card

(d) WILD

(e) OBHS 4 x 2 1 2 =10

5 (a) Why BLC wagons are introduced in Indian Railway ?

(b) What are the special features of BLC wagon ?

6. (a) How is LOCO leakage test done ?

(b) What are the procedures of train leakage test ?

7 (a) What are the precautions to be followed while maintaining the bogie mounted brake system?

(b) Draw a schematic diagram of air suspension system and label its parts. 5+5=10

8 (a) What do you understand by Trammel gauge? How would you check Casnub trolley with this gauge ? .

(b)What is the examination pattern of CC rake ? 5+5 =10

9 (a)Why are ‘L’ type and ‘K’ type brake blocks not interchangeable? Give your answer in detail. (b)What are the special features of BLC wagon ? 5+5=10

10. (a) What are the precautions to minimize the incident of train parting for CBC ?

(b) What are the various types of wheel defects and how can these be checked ? 5+5=10

Q.1 (A) Fill in the blanks with appropriate comments 1x 25 =25

a Main bearing stud is to be discarded beyond the length of -------

b Main objective of using Turbo supercharger in Diesel Locomotive is to increase -------

c ------ lubrication system is provided for lubricating suspension bearing of Diesel locomotives (WDM2)

d Middle layer of crank shaft main bearing contains . . . . . . . , … …….. and…… …..

e As the temperature of engine increases, viscosity of Lube Oil--------------------.

f High exhaust temperature is the indication of …………….

g Injection Pressure of fuel oil is made high for atomization of oil and ------- against compressed air

h Atomization of fuel is required to increase ---------- Of fuel for Oxygen to react

i Inner surface of liner is made -----------

j In turbo supercharger pressure of intake air is increased due to………..

k For cooling Diesel Locomotive components, water is supplied to the components in …………direction

l With in the compressor crank case block, both negative and positive pressures are generated. They are ………….. and ………………

m Hardness of cam lobe must ……….. than that of cam roller

n Inner diameter of liner sleeve must be ………….than outer diameter of Liner

o Hardness of Split gear key must be … …………. than that of the crank shaft.

p Torque required for tightening Fuel "T" jumper bolt is -------------

q POH of Locomotive is carried out after every --------Years

r Crank vacuum is measured by …………….

s Baffle plates are provided inside the Fuel oil tank to reduce -------------

t Surging effect may … ……… Turbo Super Supercharger.

u Stores which leave no residue after use are termed as --------------

v NSR No. Bears---------digit number.

w Plan Head-17 deals with ------------

x Primary Unit-28 deals with expenditure against --------

y Allocation for purchasing of New Machine costing Rs 9 Lakh is --------

Q.1 (B) Write “True” or “False” 1x 25 =25

a Devnagari is the script of Hindi

b Regional Language is used first in writing the name of a station.

c Andaman, Nicobar, Island is in "A" region. d Mega Bytes indicates the capacity of storage device

e Expanded form of ALU is Arithmetic and Logic Unit

f Expanded form ASCII code is American Standard Code for Information and Interface.

g MS-Office is an Operating System soft ware

h Combination of bits is called Byte

i Hard disk is a primary storage device

j There is a provision of Child Care leave for an woman employee for a total period 730 days

k HOER applies to all Rly non–gazetted employees excluding employees working Prod unit

l When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, age relaxation is not allowed

m The staff excluded are eligible for night duty allowance

n New Pension scheme has been introduced w.e.f. 01.01.2006

o Standard Form No.11 is used for issuance of Minor Penalties

p Objective of Supercharging is to feed pressurized air to the engine cylinder.

q Air-Fuel ratio for Diesel engine is 5:1

r Tractive effort is the maximum force that can be applied by the vehicle.

s There are 08 nos of main bearings in WDM2

t Dry-Run test ensures the proper movement of fuel oil linkage

u Load Box test ensures hauling capacity of Locomotive

v Blow-Bye test ensures the sealing of combustion chamber

w TSC comprises five numbers of casings

x SFC ensures the overall health of Diesel Locomotive

y Effective Dynamic brake operation increases the frequency of wheel turning

Part-II Answer any Five from the following:

Q2. Write notes on

a) SOP,

b) NSR,

c) Stock Items,

d) Cash imprest

Q.3. What are the advantages of super charging in a diesel engine and how is it achieved?

Q.4 What are the recent modifications being introduced in diesel locomotives from mechanical side?

Q.5 A Diesel Locomotive is experiencing a repeated Hot Engine alarms. What may be the probable causes for this trouble and subsequent remedial measures?

Q.6. Discuss necessary steps to be taken to minimize Lube Consumption in shed.

Q.7. Describe the brake application system in Diesel Loco with line sketch. Write down the function of D-1 pilot air valve and SA-9 independent brake valve?

Q.8. Define disciplinary authority. What are the various steps to be followed for finalization of major penalty?

Q.9 Write short notes on any Four (4):

a) Blow-by test of Engine power assembly.

b) Spectrographic analysis of Lube Oil sample.

c) Zyglo test.

d) Dry-run test.

e) Orifice test of fuel feed system.

“ B” Group – “A” 1x20 = 20 1

A) Fill up the blanks in following questions.

a ) Gear ratio of Eddy current clutch gear unit (Right angle gear box) is __________.

b ) The nominal air gap between inner and outer drum of ECC (Eddy current clutch) is ________.

c) If two D.C. series motor connected in series from parallel, torque will be increased by ______times than parallel.

d ) Electrical power output of a D.C. motor is __________(When “Eb” is back e.m.f. & “Ia” armature current).

e ) TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDP4 loco is__________.

f ) Total no. of carbon brush in BKBL motor is __________.

g ) The gap between ECC slip rings & brush holder is to be kept __________.

h ) Generator field cover load relay operating current limit is__________.

i ) Ovality of Tr. Alternator slip rings is allowed up to __________.

j ) Tacho-generator have total numbers of magnetic poles __________.

k ) Dynamic voltage adjusted at cacd no. ____________.

l ) Speed recorder works by getting signal from ____________.

m ) Gear ratio of WDG3A locomotive is ___________.

n ) Material used in positive plate of loco battery is _______________.

o ) Power Setter is used in MU locomotive to ________ _________.

p ) Positive wire no. of ECC coil is ___________.

q ) In MU operation wire no 25 is used for ______________.

r ) Type of Excitation used in WDS-6 locomotive is __________.

s ) Power Ground can not be removed by Driver (through MCO ) if earth fault occurs in TM no./nos.________.

t ) In Diesel locomotive, wire no 24 is used for __________.

B ) Choose the correct answer. 1x20 = 20

a ) For WDG3A loco, time delay period setting of TDR (during starting) (0.8 to 1.5sec / 0.8 to 1.8sec/ 0.5 to 1.8sec).

b ) PCS2 sets at (4/2.8kg/cm2 / 4.4/4.7kg/cm2 / 4.5/4.8kg/cm2 ).

c ) Horse Power absorbed by Auxiliary generator of WDG4 locomotive is

( a) 12KW

b) 18KW

c) 22 KW

d) 22.5 KW

d ) Maximum RPM of traction motor of WDG4 locomotive is

( a) 3000

b) 3220

c) 3440

d) 3500

e ) No. of traction motor of WDP4 locomotive is

( a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 5 ).

f ) Maximum speed of WDP4 locomotive is

( a)120 Kmph

b) 160 Kmph

c) 150 Kmph

d) 180 Kmph).

g ) No. of main poles in Auxiliary Generator type 3101 AY1 are

( a) 4 pole

b) 6 pole

c) 2 pole

d) 8 pole).

h ) In ECC (Eddy current clutch), clutching of inner and outer drum is through

(a) Mech. Clutch

b) Electrical clutch

c) Magnetic clutch

d) By pulley arrangement ).

i ) No load voltage is checked on wire no.

( a) 34G-36

b) 34-36

c) GK-2-GA

d) 34E-36 ).

j ) If the reference voltage is more than 24.4 volts, the defects in

( a) LCP

b) SP

c) GCR

d) Pilot valve ).

k ) In WW governor, the solenoid/ solenoids are energized in 5th notch is ( ‘A’ / ‘B’ & ‘C’ / ‘A’ , ‘B’ & ‘C’ / ‘B’ , ‘C’ & ‘D’/ no solenoid )

l ) MLR current(exciting current) in adjusted in WDM2 locomotive is (25.5v / 29.5v / 36.5v / 38.2v).

m ) Working voltage of twin beam head light is (12volts / 24volts / 32volts / 72volts).

n ) Number of FS contactors in WDG3A locomotive is (6 / 4 /2 / 0 )

o) No load voltage of WDG3A locomotive is (1080-1000volts/1100-1130volts//1150- 1170volts/1180-1200volts).

p ) Standard Value of Reference voltage is ( 21.4 volts/23.4volts/24.4volts/26.4volts).

q ) No. of pole of Axle generator is (20 / 30 / 40 / 50).

r) Pressure setting of P1 PCS of AFL circuit is (4/2.8kg/cm2 / 4.4/4.7kg/cm2 / 4.5/4.8kg/cm2 / 7.5/6.5 kg/cm2 ).

s) Oil Pressure is maintained WW governor is ( 85PSI / 90PSI / 100PSI / 115PSI ).

t) Traction Motor arrangement of WDG3A locomotive is (LLR-LRR / LLL-RRR / LRR-LLR / RRR/LLL ).

C) State the following statements “True” or “False” . 1x10 = 10

a ) DC/DC loco is cranked by Auxiliary and Exciter generator.

b ) ECS is located in control stand of the diesel locomotive.

c ) TDR is energized after pick up of CK3 contactor.

d ) BSR is a Battery Supply Relay.

e ) Trip current rating of MB2 circuit breaker is 150 amps.

f ) PCS2 picks up at 4.0/2.8 kg/cm2.

g ) In D.C. series motor, If load is increased, speed will also increased.

h ) In D.C. shunt motor, If load is decreased, speed will also increased.

i ) In D.C. series Generator, generated voltage is always constant.

j ) Speed of D.C. can be controlled by changing armature resistance.

Group – “B” Attempt any Five ( 5 ) Questions (All questions carry equal marks). 10 X 5 =50 2+2+6=10

1. What do you mean by transition for Diesel loco? Why does it necessary? How does it achieved in WDG3A locomotive – explain with proper diagram. 3+7=10

2. Enumerate construction and overhauling procedure of traction motor used in Diesel locomotive. 1+9=10

3. What are the sensors, fitted in MEP-660 control system, describe about these sensors. 4+6=10

4. Enumerate the construction and working procedure of Micro Controller Based Governor. 10

5. Describe the Electrical power transmission system of EMD (WDG4) locomotive with the help of necessary diagram.

6. Write short note on any two

(2). 5 X 2=10

(a) IGBT

(b) TCC

Q. 1. Choose the most appropriate answer. 10 X 1=10

a) LHAP available in a year

a)10 days

b) 20 days

c) 25 days

d) 30 days.

b) Ignition quality of diesel is expressed by

a) betane no.

b) cetane no.

c) octane no.

d) PL no.

c) Diesel engine ignited by

a) governor.

b) spark plug

c)Injector

d) accumulation of heat of compress air.

d) Cardium compound is used for

a) minimizing friction

b) maintain longevity

c) maintain thermal stress

(d) all of the above.

e) Codal life of WDM-2 locomotive is

a) 34 yrs

b) 35 yrs

c)36 yrs

d)42 yrs.

f) No. of privilege pass granted to Rly officer

(G) is a) 3 set b) 4 set c) 5 set d) 6 set.

g) Atmospheric press at sea level is

a)1.30 kg/sq.cm.

b)1.03 kg/sq.cm.

c) 1.13 kg/sq.cm.

d) 1.31 kg/sq.cm. ''

h) Helical spring manufacture at

a) Kapurthala

b) Gwalior

C) Jamalpur

d) Chennai.

i) Wide of BG Rly is

a)1676 cm.

b)1667 cm.

c)1677 cm.

d) 1665 cm.

j) No of Rly zone as on the year 2012 is

a) 15 b) 16 c) 17 d) 18

Q. 2. Mark true or false. 10*1=10

a) In WDM-2 loco there provided multistage reciprocating compressor. T/F

b) Confidential level staff having 12 hour duty. T/F

c) Potential energy of a ball whose mass M falling from a height H with acceleration A is the product of all three constraint. T/F

d) Inventor of steam engine was Rovart Stephenson. T/F

e) Chromate compound is used in water to detect leakage of the system. T/F

f) Major penalty charge sheet no.is SF-11. T/F

g) ISO located at Geneva. T/F

h) The term ABC analysis is under the subject ‘Material Management’. T/F

i) Currency of green notice is 6 month. T/F j) Rly Staff College is situated at Jamalpur. T/F

Q.3. Expand the following terminology. 20x1=20 FAX WWG LLL JCM AAR HTML CBI UGC CRIS DCF QC CCTV BIS IRCA RITES CCRS DRF BMEP UTS CMS .

Q.4. Write short note 5x4=20 SFC, LWS, Lay off, Pixel, Railway servant conduct rule.

Q.5 Explain the Semaphore arm signaling system in IR. 10

Q.6 What is coolant ? Name a coolant used in WDM-2 locomotive ? Give a flow diagram of that coolant with detail description. 2+1+7=10

Q.7 Explain with knit sketch of compress air system in WDM-2 loco 10

Q.8 What do you mean by simulation ? Why Rly organization set up simulator ? Write four places in India where simulator are provided . 2+6+2=10

Q 8. Fill in the blanks : 10x1 = 10

a) Workman compensation Act recognize in the year --------------.

b) Rly Board form in the year ………………. .

c) In India at ……………. 1st steam engine manufacture.

d) CCRS head quarter at ……………….. .

e) Main element of ferrous metal is …………….. .

f) Amount of Adhesion factor of WDM-2 loco is ……………… .

g) 1 micron is equal to ………………….. meter.

h) Gradation of HSD oil is ……………. .

i) Father of Scientific Management ……………….. .

j) Largest Rly. Network in the world is at …………………. . -----------

Q. 1. Choose the most appropriate answer. 10 X 1=10

a) LHAP available in a year

a)10 days

b) 20 days

c) 25 days

d) 30 days.

b) Ignition quality of diesel is expressed by

a) betane no.

b) cetane no.

c) octane no.

d) PL no.

c) Diesel engine ignited by

a) governor.

b) spark plug

c)Injector

d) accumulation of heat of compress air.

d) Cardium compound is used for

a) minimizing friction

b) maintain longevity

c) maintain thermal stress

(d) all of the above.

e) Codal life of WDM-2 locomotive is

a) 34 yrs

b) 35 yrs

c)36 yrs

d)42 yrs.

f) No. of privilege pass granted to Rly officer(G) is

a) 3 set

b) 4 set

c) 5 set

d) 6 set.

g) Atmospheric press at sea level is

a)1.30 kg/sq.cm.

b)1.03 kg/sq.cm.

c) 1.13 kg/sq.cm.

d) 1.31 kg/sq.cm.

h) Helical spring manufacture at

a) Kapurthala

b) Gwalior

C) Jamalpur

d) Chennai.

i) Wide of BG Rly is

a)1676 cm.

b)1667 cm.

c)1677 cm.

d) 1665 cm.

j) No of Rly zone as on the year 2012 is

a) 15

b) 16

c) 17

d) 18

Q. 2. Mark true or false. 10x1=10

a) In WDM-2 loco there provided multistage reciprocating compressor. T/F

b) Confidential level staff having 12 hour duty. T/F

c) Potential energy of a ball whose mass M falling from a height H with acceleration A is the product of all three constraint. T/F

d) Inventor of steam engine was Rovart Stephenson. T/F

e) Chromate compound is used in water to detect leakage of the system. T/F

f) Major penalty charge sheet no.is SF-11. T/F

g) ISO located at Geneva. T/F

h) The term ABC analysis is under the subject ‘Material Management’. T/F

i) Currency of green notice is 6 month. T/F

j) Rly Staff College is situated at Jamalpur. T/F

Q.3. Expand the following terminology. 20x1=20 FAX WWG LLL JCM AAR HTML CBI UGC CRIS DCF SQC CCTV BIS IRCA RITES CCRS DRF BMEP UTS CMS .

Q.4. Write short note 5x4=20 SFC, LWS, Lay off, Pixel, Railway servant conduct rule.

Q.5 Explain the Semaphore arm signaling system in IR. 10

Q.6 What is coolant ? Name a coolant used in WDM-2 locomotive ? Give a flow diagram of that coolant with detail description. 2+1+7=10

Q.7 Explain with knit sketch of compress air system in WDM-2 loco 10

Q.8 What do you mean by simulation ? Why Rly organization set up simulator ? Write four places in India where simulator are provided . 2+6+2=10

Q 8. Fill in the blanks : 10x1 = 10

i. Workman compensation Act recognize in the year --------------.

ii. Rly Board form in the year ………………. .

iii. In India at ……………. 1st steam engine manufacture.

iv. CCRS head quarter at ……………….. .

v. Main element of ferrous metal is …………….. .

vi. Amount of Adhesion factor of WDM-2 loco is ……………… .

vii. 1 micron is equal to ………………….. meter.

viii. Gradation of HSD oil is ……………. .

ix. Father of Scientific Management ……………….. .

x. Largest Rly. Network in the world is at …………………. . ---------------

Q.1 (A) Fill in the blanks with appropriate comments 1x 25 =25

a No. main bearings are available in WDM2 is -------

b Turbo supercharger in Diesel Locomotive is to increase --------- -------

c Thermal efficiency of Diesel cycle is ------Petrol cycle

d “S”-Pipe is provided in Diesel Locomotive to lubricate---------

e As the temperature of engine increases, viscosity of Lube Oil--------------------.

f High exhaust temperature is the indication of …………….

g Injection Pressure of fuel oil is made high for atomization of oil and ------- against compressed air

h Atomization of fuel is required to increase ---------- Of fuel for Oxygen to react

i Inner surface of liner is made -----------

j In turbo supercharger pressure of intake air is increased due to………..

k For cooling Diesel Locomotive components, water is supplied to the components in …………direction

l With in the compressor crank case block, both negative and positive pressures are generated. They are ………….. and ………………

m Hardness of cam lobe must ……….. than that of cam roller

n Inner diameter of liner sleeve must be ………….than outer diameter of Liner

o Hardness of Split gear key must be … …………. than that of the crank shaft.

p Torque required for tightening Fuel "T" jumper bolt is -------------

q POH of Locomotive is carried out after every --------Years

r Crank vacuum is measured by …………….

s Baffle plates are provided inside the Fuel oil tank to reduce -------------

t After cooler is used to cool -----------.

u Intercooler is used to cool----------

v NSR No. Bears---------digit number.

w Consignee code comprises--------- digits

x Primary Unit-28 deals with expenditure against --------

y Expanded form of VCD is ----------

Q.1 (B) Write “True” or “False” 1x 25 =25

a Devnagari is the script of Hindi

b Regional Language is used first in writing the name of a station.

c Andaman, Nicobar, Island is in "A" region.

d Mega Bytes indicates the capacity of storage device

e Expanded form of ALU is Arithmetic and Logic Unit f Expanded form ASCII code is American Standard Code for Information and Interface.

g MS-Office is an Operating System soft ware

h Combination of bits is called Byte

i Hard disk is a primary storage device

j There is a provision of Child Care leave for an woman employee for a total period 730 days

k HOER applies to all Rly non–gazetted employees excluding employees working Prod unit

l When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, age relaxation is not allowed

m The staff excluded are eligible for night duty allowance

n New Pension scheme has been introduced w.e.f. 01.01.2006

o Standard Form No. 5 is used for issuance of Minor Penalties

p Objective of Supercharging is to feed pressurized air to the engine cylinder.

q Air-Fuel ratio for Diesel engine is 5:1

r Tractive effort is the maximum force that can be applied by the vehicle.

s There are 09 nos of main bearings in WDM2

t Dry-Run test ensures the proper movement of fuel oil linkage

u Load Box test ensures hauling capacity of Locomotive

v Blow-Bye test ensures the sealing of combustion chamber

w TSC comprises five numbers of casings

x SFC ensures the overall health of Diesel Locomotive

y Effective Dynamic brake operation increases the frequency of wheel turning

Part-II Answer any Five from the following: 10x 5 = 50

Q2. Write notes on

a) SFC,

b) Non-Stock Item ,

c) CPU ,

d) Statistical failure

Q.3. What are the advantages of Air brake system over Vacuum brake system? Describe Independent brake system employed in Diesel Locomotive.

Q.4 What are the recent modifications being introduced in diesel locomotives from mechanical side?

Q.5 What is preventive maintenance? Describe in details the items to be taken care of during carrying out M2 Schedule on Diesel Locomotive.

Q.6. Describe the necessary precautions are to be taken to minimize the failure against Hot Engine trouble in Diesel Locomotive .

Q.7.Why is Load box test conducted and describe the procedure of Load box test.

Q.8. Describe with net sketch the Lube oil system incorporated in Diesel Locomotive.

Q.9 Write short notes on any Four (4):

a) Blow-by test of Engine power assembly.

b) Over speed device .

c) Zyglo test.

d) Dry-run test.

e) Orifice test of fuel feed system. -----------

A) Fill up the blanks in following questions. .

a ) PREM stands for __________.

b ) Maternity leave for female Railway employee is granted for ________days.

c ) ___________ will act as Chair Person of Ad-hoc Tribunal.

d ) Total nos. of rules in D & A rule – 1968 are __________.

e ) Provision of Penalty is mentioned in rule no. _________. f ) Joining time is granted when transfer of two station is more than 1000 km but less than 2000 km ________days.

g ) Child adoption leave granted for __________.

h ) Standard form is used for suspension is ____________.

i ) Consignee code consist of _________ digits

. j ) Main group for scrap item is ___________.

k ) Items are not issued for last one year is ___________.

l ) Last digit of P.L. no called ___________.

m ) Form code of requisition and issue note used in division for stock items is called ___________.

n ) Contract period of C category items begins on ___________.

o ) Accountal unit of liter is _________. p) Full for of HOER is -------------

q) An Railway employee earns LAP------------ days in a year.

r) Under O.L. act West Bengal is --------------region.

s ) O. L. department belongs to Ministry of ___________.

t ) Official Language Act was passed in the year ___________.

B ) Choose the correct answer. 1x20 = 20

a ) Gear ratio of Eddy current clutch gear unit (Right angle gear box) is

(a) 1:1.312

(b) 1:1.321

( d) 1:1.213

b ) The nominal air gap between inner and outer drum of ECC (Eddy current clutch) is

(a) 0.8 to 1.2mm

(b) 1.9mm to 2 mm

( d) 9mm to 4mm

c ) If two D.C. series motor connected in series from parallel, torque will be increased by

(a) ½ times

(b) 2 times

( d) ¼ times than parallel.

d ) Electrical power output of a D.C. motor is

(a) Eb/ Ia

(b) Eb Ia

( d) Ia 2 Eb (When “Eb” is back e.m.f. & “Ia” armature current).

e ) TM pinion and bull gear ratio in WDP4 loco is

(a) 18 :74

(b) 22 : 74

( d) 17 : 90

f ) Total no. of carbon brush in BKBL motor is

(a) 2

(b) 4

( d) 8.

g ) The gap between ECC slip rings & brush holder is to be kept

(a) 5mm

(b) 8mm

( d) 15mm.

h ) Generator field over load relay operating current limit is

(a) 30 ( + -5 )

(b) 180 ( + -10 )

( d) 330 ( + -5 )..

i ) Ovality of Tr. Alternator slip rings is allowed up to

(a) 0.010”

(b) .002”

( d) .006”.

j ) Tacho-generator is having total numbers of poles

(a) 2

(b) 4

( d) 8.

k ) Horse Power absorbed by Auxiliary generator of WDG4 locomotive is

( a) 12KW

b) 18KW

c) 22 KW

d) 22.5 KW

l ) Maximum RPM of traction motor of WDG4 locomotive is

( a) 3000

b) 3220

c) 3440

d) 3500 .

m ) No. of main poles in Auxiliary Generator type 3101 AY1 are

( a) 4 pole

b) 6 pole

c) 2 pole

d) 8 pole.

n ) Material used in positive plate of loco battery is

(a) Pb

(b) PbO2

( d) Cu.

o ) Power Setter is used in MU locomotive to

(a) Increase acceleration

(b) save fuel

( d) Decrease speed.

p ) Positive wire no. of ECC coil is

(a) 72

(b) 71

( d) 13.

q ) In MU operation wire no 25 is used for

(a) Dynamic brake

(b) EP governor

( d) spare.

r ) Type of Excitation used in WDS-6 locomotive is

(a) e-type

(b) Static type

( d) split pole type.

s ) Power Ground can not be removed by Driver (through MCO ) if earth fault occured in TMno./nos. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 1 & 2 ( d) 1, 2 & 3.

t ) No. of traction motor of WDP4 locomotive is ( a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 5 ).

C ) State the following statements “True” or “False” . 1x10 = 10

a ) DC/DC loco is cranked by Auxiliary and Exciter generator.

b ) ECS is located in control stand of the diesel locomotive.

c ) TDR is energized after pick up of CK3 contactor.

d ) TGLR is present in WW governor equipped loco circuit.

e ) Trip current rating of MB2 circuit breaker is 150 amps.

f ) PCS2 picks up at 4.0/2.8 kg/cm2.

g ) In D.C. series motor, If load is increased, speed will also increased.

h ) In D.C. shunt motor, If load is decreased, speed will also increased.

i ) In D.C. series Generator, load voltage is always constant.

j ) Speed of D.C. motor can be controlled by changing armature resistance.

Group – “B” Attempt any Five ( 5 ) Questions (All questions carry equal marks). 10 X 5 =50

1. What do you mean by transition for Diesel loco? Why does it necessary? How is it achieved in WDG3A locomotive – explain with proper diagram. 2+2+6=10

2. Enumerate overhauling procedure of traction motor used in Diesel locomotive. 10

3. What are the sensors, fitted in MEP-660 control system, describe about these sensors. 2+8=10

4. Enumerate the construction and working procedure of Micro Controller Based Governor 4+6=10

5. Describe the Electrical power transmission system of EMD (WDG4) locomotive with the help of necessary diagram. 10

6. Write short note on any two(2). 5 X 2=10

a) IGBT

(b) TCC

Q1. Fill in the blanks 1X30=30

a) The quantity of oil in each side bearer of an ICF trolley is___________

b) The amount of grease in an axle box of spherical roller bearing is _________

c) The working strength of CBC used on coaches is ____________

d) The lateral clearance between side frame and axle box adopter casnub 22 W is________

e) The brake cylinder vent plug is used for _______________.

f) The size of brake cylinder in bogie mounted system is _____________

g) The water tank capacity of ICF coach is ___________ litre

h) The condemning limit of BLC wagon wheel diameter is________________

i) The side bearer used in BLC wagon is ___

j) The BSS hangers of an ICF bogie are fitted at an angle of ________with vertical.

k) The water tank capacity of ICF coach is ___________ litre

l) The minimum mum air pressure required for WRA is ___________ kg/cm2

m) Prescribed leakage rate while conducting leakage test on a coach is _________

n) The working strength of CBC used on coaches is ____________

o) The Destruction tube is provided inside the ________

p) The brake cylinder vent plug is used for _______________.

q) The codal life of RCF coach is _________

r) Number of sliding valve provided in CDTS is _____________

s) In air brake system the thread joints are tightened with ________________

t) FRP stands for ________________________________

u) Electrometric pads are provided to reduce ______________________

v) DV sensitivity test is done with a reduction of BP pressure by 0.6 kg/cm2 in __ secs.

w) The lateral clearance between side frame and axle box adopter casnub 22 W is____ .

x) The train pipe dia of goods stock is ___________ mm.

y) The condemning limit of BLC wagon wheel diameter is___________ .

z) The number of roller provided in each row CTRB is ________ .

aa) The root radius of worn wheel profile used on CASNUB bogie is _________ .

bb) The side bearer used in BLC wagon is _________ .

cc) The standard gap between wheel and brake block in BOX wagon is ______ .

dd) Diameter of knuckle pivot pin is ___________

Q 2. Match the following 2x5=10

a) ICF BOGIE i) POP MARK

b) HYBRID Coach ii) AC coaches

c) RMPU iii) DASH POT

iv) 160 Km.

e) CASNUB BOGIE v) Air Spring

3. State True or False 1x10 = 10

a) The hot box temperature is 90 degree centigrade.

b) The number of roller provided in each row CTRB is 48

c) The root radius of worn wheel profile used on CASNUB bogie is 13 mm

d) Brake cylinder charging time in coaching stock during full service application is 3 to 5 sec

e) The standard gap between wheel and brake block in BOX wagon is 6.25 mm

f) The BSS hangers of ICF bogie are fitted at an angle with the vertical is 10degree.

g) The number of roller provided in each row CTRB is 24

h) The root radius of worn wheel profile used on CASNUB bogie is 13 mm

i) Brake cylinder charging time in coaching stock during full service application is 3 to 5 sec

j) The standard gap between wheel and brake block in BOX wagon is 6.25 mm

Group-B Answer any Five of the following 5 X 10= 50

Q1. (a) Why BOXNHL wagons are introduced in Indian Railway ? 3+6+1

(b) What are the special features BOXNHL of wagon ?

Q.2 (a) What is corrosion? 2+3+5

(b) What are the vulnerable points of corrosion in COACH & Wagon?

Q.3. (a) What are the salient features of BOXN-HA wagon ? 2+5+3

(b) Explain about its superstructure?

Q.4 a) What are the salient features of Air Suspension system ? 4+4+2

(b) Draw a schematic diagram of air suspension system and label its parts.

Q5. (a) List out a comparative feature/technical data of ICF and LHB coaches. 6+2+2

(b) How heat and sound is managed in LHB Coaches?-roll mechanism fitted in LHB coaches?

Q6. (a) What do you mean by ODC? Classify the different classes of ODC with their salient features. (b) What is the examination pattern of CC rake? 5+5

Q7. Write short notes on the following (any four)

(a) CDTS

(b) PEASD

(d) WILD

(e) BMBS 4 x 2 1 2 =10

Q1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate comments:

a) If a body is negatively charged by rubbing , its weight is ---------

b) At absolute zero temperature the conductivity of semiconductor is---------

c) To prepare P-type semiconductor -------- is used as dopant.

d) The capacitance of a capacitor --------- depend on the charges on the plates .

e) In N-type semiconductor --------- is the minor carrier.

f) Energy loss of ground wave while propagating in the channel is called -------

g) Expanded form of PWM is ----------

h) Zenner diode works on ---------- biasing.

i) For forward biasing of P-N junction the maximum voltage applied is -------

j) Earth is being continuously charged through -----------

k) ------ and ------ are the building block of Logic gate.

Q2. State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”.

i) For bidden gap for Ge is 0.72 eV.

ii) During electrical power supply , Earth behaves as a huge capacitor.

iii) Phosphorus is used as dopant for preparing P-type Semiconductor.

iv) Potentiometer can be assumed as ideal voltmeter..

v) Colour code system is not generally adopted for calculation of the resistance of carbon resistor.

vi) Voltage gain is the ratio of change of output voltage to input voltage.

vii) For conductor energy band overlap with valance band.

viii) Capacitor is used to separate carrier wave from modulating signal .

ix) Frequency for full wave rectifier is equal to the frequency of applied analogue signal.

x) Digital signal is converted into analogue signal by Modem .

Q3 . What do mean by transistor? Describe with net sketch the input characteristic graph for n-p-n transistor.

Q4. What do you mean by biasing? Describe with net sketch the working principle of LED.

Q5. What do you mean by current gain? How will you show that the current gain in common base n-p-n transistor is less than that of common emitter n-p-n transistor?

Q6. What do you mean by reverse biasing? Describe with net sketch the working principle of Zenner diode.

Q7. What do you mean by communication? Describe sky wave communication.

Q8. What do you mean by modulation of electromagnetic wave? How is frequency of an wave is modulated and why is modulated?

Part-B Write any three questions from Part-B. All questions carry equal marks.

Q10. Write the expanded form of the followings:

i) PWM

ii) PVC

iii) LED

iv) VLSI

v) TFT

vi) FTP

vii) HTML

viii) RAM

ix) CD

x) LCD

Q11. Read the following Sentences carefully and indicate True or False :

a) Standard Form No.11 is used for issuance of Minor Penalties.

b) There is a provision of Child Care leave for an woman employee for a total period 730 days in her entire period of service.

c) New Pension scheme has been introduced w.e.f. 01.01.2004.

d) “Suspension” is a penalty under DAR.

e) HOER applies to all Rly non–gazetted employees excluding employees working Prod unit.

f) Demand-16 deals with acquisition of Assets

g) Frequency of verification for “A” category item under ABC analysis is 1 year

h) Plan Head-41 deals with M&P items i) NSR No bears 10 digit numbers.

j) Mega Bytes indicates the capacity of storage device.

Q11. A train moving at its 2/3rd speed from KGP reaches to PUI with 5 hours late from the schedule time. How many hours would the train take if it would have moved with its full speed?

Q.13 State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”

a) Devnagari is the script of Hindi

b) Regional Language is used first in writing the name of a station

c) Hindi language should be used in reply for a letter issued or signed in Hindi

d) Hindi day is observed on 14 September as an Official language

e) There are 9 sections in O.L Act

f) Section 3:3 of O.L. Act is related with Bilingual (Hindi & English) use

g) Andaman, Nicobar, Island is in "A" region

h) There are 3 O.L. regions in India

i) If an employee put up his replay in Hindi for an explanation called or for a charge sheet, his employer can not ask for English translation

j) Shri A.V. Vajpayee is the first Representative, who addressed UNO in

A. All questions carry equal marks

Q1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate comments:

a) Moment of inertia of a hollow sphere having mass “M” and radius “R” about an axis passing through its centre is --

b) Dimensional unit of surface tension is ----- ---

c) A member of a machine which transmits power without any deformation is called ------- --------

d) For any thermodynamic process, entropy of the Universe --------------

e) The name of the main slug formed in a blast furnace is ---- ----

f) Lamis theorem is applicable when a body is in ----- under the action three forces

g) ------- Cycle has the maximum efficiency among all thermodynamic cycles under the same temperatures limit.

h) While machining mild steel, the nature of chips produced is ---------

i) White flame has ------ temperature than that of red flame.

j) -------- is the second hardest material .

Q2. State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”.

i) A system is in stable equilibrium when its potential energy is minimum.

ii) The moment of a force about an axis is a vector quantity.

iii) A spring is cut into three equal pieces and found spring constant of each spring 1/3rd times that of original spring.

iv) Rolling friction develops due to mechanical interlocking between two contact surfaces. v) When a train moves at 100 kmph, air resistance is directly proportional to the square of the relative velocity between air and the train.

vi) Otto cycle comprises two isobaric processes and two isothermal processes.

vii) When a body is lifted to a height “H”, its potential energy is stored in the body.

viii) In SHM, frequency of maximum K.E. is twice that of the frequency of the cycle.

ix) When length of the simple pendulum tends to infinity, its time period also tends to infinity.

x) All thermodynamic processes are treated as quasi static in nature.

Q3 .How will you comply with the following.-

a) A mild steel shaft is to be made into power transmitting shaft.

b) Density of steel ingot is to be increased.

c) Seamless copper pipe has been hardened and it is to be put into service.

d) Metal surface is to be made very smooth reflective surface.

e) 1000 Kgf load is to be lifted by an effort of 10 Kgf.

Q4. Write short notes on the followings:

a) MIG welding

b) Piercing.

c) Polymer .

d) Babbit metal

e) Metacentre

Q5. Explain different processes involved in Carnot Cycle and utility of this cycle. Also explain Why it is a theoretical cycle.

Q6. Explain the objectives of lubrication. Describe any two types of lubrication system..

Q7. Describe the following heat treat processes:

a) Annealing.

b) Normalising.

c) Hardening.

d) Tempering

e) Nitriding

Q8. What do you mean by viscosity? How does viscosity play a significant role in lubrication. In the light of viscosity, describe terminal velocity of a body moving in a viscous fluid.

Q9 Normal reaction acting on the wheels of a coach is 1000Kgf when it is at rest. This reaction force shifts forward and makes an angle of 600 with the horizontal when the coach is in forward motion. Calculate the rolling friction experienced by the coach. Part-B Write any three questions from Part-B. All questions carry equal marks.

Q10. Write the expanded form of the followings:

i) CAD

ii) PMMA

iii) ppm

iv) RDSO

v) RITES

vi) LDCE

vii) EDM

viii) RAM

ix)CD

x) LCD

Q11. Read the following Sentences carefully and indicate True or False :

a) Standard Form No.11 is used for issuance of Minor Penalties.

b) There is a provision of Child Care leave for an woman employee for a total period 730 days in her entire period of service.

c) New Pension scheme has been introduced w.e.f. 01.01.2004.

d) “Suspension” is a penalty under DAR.

e) HOER applies to all Rly non–gazetted employees excluding employees working Prod unit.

f) Demand-16 deals with acquisition of Assets

g) Frequency of verification for “A” category item under ABC analysis is 1 year

h) Plan Head-41 deals with M&P items i) NSR No bears 10 digit numbers.

j) Mega Bytes indicates the capacity of storage device.

Q12. A train moving at its 2/3rd speed from KGP reaches to PUI with 5 hours late from the schedule time. How many hours would the train take if it would have moved with its full speed ?

Q.13 State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”

a) Devnagari is the script of Hindi

b) Regional Language is used first in writing the name of a station

c) Hindi language should be used in reply for a letter issued or signed in Hindi

d) Hindi day is observed on 14 September as an Official language

e) There are 9 sections in O.L Act

f) Section 3:3 of O.L. Act is related with Bilingual (Hindi & English) use

g) Andaman, Nicobar, Island is in "A" region

h) There are 3 O.L. regions in India

i) If an employee put up his replay in Hindi for an explanation called or for a charge sheet, his employer can not ask for English translation

j) Shri A.V. Vajpayee is the first Representative, who addressed UNO in

A. All questions carry equal marks

Q1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate comments:

a) If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight ---------

b) A point charge is brought in an electric field. The electric field at a nearby point may increase if the charge is ---

c) The flux of the electric field through a closed surface due to all the charges is -------to the flux due to the charges enclosed by the surface

d) The capacitance of a capacitor --------- depend on the charges on the plates .

e) When no current is passed through a conductor, the average velocity of a free electron over a large period

f) is ---- ----

g) An electric circuit comprising semiconductors is called -------

h) A volt meter contains a huge resistance in ----------

i) Zenner diode is used to supply ----------

j) As the temperature increases, the resistance of semiconductor -------

k) Earth is being continuously charged through -----------

Q2. State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”.

i) EMF of an electrolytic cell may be greater or less than the potential difference across the plates.

ii) During electrical power supply , Earth behaves as a huge capacitor.

iii) At Curie point, paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material.

iv) Potentiometer can be assumed as ideal voltmeter..

v) Colour code system is not generally adopted for calculation of the resistance of carbon resistor.

vi) Anode plate of an electrolytic cell is positive

vii) For charging of an electrolytic cell, +ve plate of the cell is connected with the –ve terminal of the supply.

viii) Magnetic lines of force is always a continuous curve.

ix) Luminous efficiency of an incandescent bulb is generally more than 100%.

x) Earth fault may cause low voltage of the supply line.

Q3 . Explain the salient features of EMU bogie assembly..

Q4. Explain the trouble shooting procedure for the following faults.

a) DJ not closing.

b) No traction in motor coach.

c) Head light not glowing

Q5. Write short note on the following.

a) Dash pot assembly

b) Pantograph.

c) Emergency brake application.

d) Rectifier fan

Q6. Explain the working principle of EMU showing the major equipments with a block diagram.

Q7. Explain the overhauling procedure of EMU traction motor. Why is DC series motor used as traction motor?

Q8. An inductor of inductance 100mH is connected with a resistance , a variable capacitance and an AC source of frequency 2.0kHz. What should be the value of the capacitance so that maximum current may be drawn into the circuit.

Q9. Explain the working of safety relays provided in EMU. Part-B Write any three questions from Part-B. All questions carry equal marks.

Q10. Write the expanded form of the followings:

i) PWM

ii) PVC

iii) PNM

iv) RDSO

v) RITES

vi) LDCE

vii) JCM

viii) RAM

ix) CD

x) LCD

Q11. Read the following Sentences carefully and indicate True or False :

a) Standard Form No.11 is used for issuance of Minor Penalties.

b) There is a provision of Child Care leave for an woman employee for a total period 730 days in her entire period of service.

c) New Pension scheme has been introduced w.e.f. 01.01.2004.

d) “Suspension” is a penalty under DAR.

e) HOER applies to all Rly non–gazetted employees excluding employees working Prod unit.

f) Demand-16 deals with acquisition of Assets

g) Frequency of verification for “A” category item under ABC analysis is 1 year

h) Plan Head-41 deals with M&P items

i) NSR No bears 10 digit numbers.

j) Mega Bytes indicates the capacity of storage device.

Q11. A train moving at its 2/3rd speed from KGP reaches to PUI with 5 hours late from the schedule time. How many hours would the train take if it would have moved with its full speed?

Q.13 State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”

a) Devnagari is the script of Hindi

b) Regional Language is used first in writing the name of a station

c) Hindi language should be used in reply for a letter issued or signed in Hindi

d) Hindi day is observed on 14 September as an Official language

e) There are 9 sections in O.L Act

f) Section 3:3 of O.L. Act is related with Bilingual (Hindi & English) use

g) Andaman, Nicobar, Island is in "A" region

h) There are 3 O.L. regions in India

i) If an employee put up his replay in Hindi for an explanation called or for a charge sheet, his employer can not ask for English translation

j) Shri A.V. Vajpayee is the first Representative, who addressed UNO in 2013

Part-A

Q1. Fill in the blanks with appropriate comments: 1 x 25 = 25

a) NSR No. Bears---------digit number.-

b) Consignee code bears ------ digit numbers

c) PL No. bears ----- ---digit number.

d) Budget estimate is prepared in the month of ---------

e) Power of CME to sanction M&P item up to Rs.---------

f) There is a provision of Child Care leave for an woman employee for a total period of 730 days in her entire period of service.

g) Standard Form No. --------- is used for issuance of Minor Penalties.

h) Expanded form of MACP is -----------

i) There are ------- sections in O.L Act

j) Section --------- of O.L. Act is related with Bilingual (Hindi & English) use

k) The process of joining two pieces of metal by application of heat is called---------- welding

l) The capacity of metal to be welded under fabrication conditions satisfactorily is called-- ------ --- m) Welding process, where two pieces of metal of same cross section are gripped together and

n) Voltage drop across the arc is -------- when the electrode is shorted to the work piece.

o) Soft solder is composed of ----------- and --------

p) Quality of welding is tested by------------ machine.

q) Expanded form of BHN is ---------

r) Welding joint is --------- type of joint .

s) A metal is said to be cold worked if it is mechanically processed below -------

t) pressed while heat is generated in the contact surface is called-----------------

u) Pressure tubes are generally joined by ------------ welding

v) During gas cutting process, metal is cut due to -------of O2

w) Full form of DVD is ---------------

x) MS-Word is an word processing -------------

y) 101010 in binary number system is equivalent to --------- in decimal number system

Q2. State the following whether “TRUE” or “FALSE”. 1 x 25 = 25

a) Frequency of verification for “A” category item under ABC analysis is 1 year.

b) The degree of control should be rigorous for “A” items & should be minimum for “C” item items. c) Sl No. 2g (Works matter) of USOP deals with the sanction of Estimate for Sanctioned work.

d) CPDE is to publish notification of Open Tender in Railway.

e) At Railway Board level, PNM is held once in four months.

f) The staff excluded is eligible for night duty allowance.

g) All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on envelopes and other stationery etc., shall be in bilingual.

h) Expanded form of HOER is Hour of Employment Rules.

i) New pension scheme has been started from 01-01-2006.

j) As per O.L. regions in India, West Bengal is in "B" region.

k) Devnagari is the script of Hindi l) Hard disk is an example of primary memory unit.

m) MS-Office is operating system software.

n) Otto cycle comprises two isobaric processes and two isothermal processes.

o) When length of the simple pendulum tends to infinity, its time period also tends to infinity.

p) A spring is cut into three equal pieces and found spring constant of each spring 1/3rd times that of original spring constant.

q) The moment of a force about an axis is vector .

r) Popping usually occurs due to pre-ignition of gasses.

s) For DCSP , the work-piece is connected to the negative terminal of the welding machine..

t) ------ welding is generally adopted in the repair of broken heavy parts..

u) For cutting purpose ,LPG is less advantageous over acetylene gas.

v) Arc voltage increases with increase in arc length.

w) Deposition of filler metal increases with increase in current.

x) Penetration is least for DCRP arc welding.

y) Joining of two pieces of metal sheet by fusible alloy is called soldering .

Part-B Answer any five questions from the following: 10 x 5 = 50

Q3 .How will you comply the following.:-

a) 7.5Cm thick pressure vessel to be welded.

b) Broken rails are to be welded .

c) Seamless pressure tubes are to be welded.

d) BOXN end wall having base metal IRS M-41, IS 2062is to be welded

e) Cast iron bogie frame has been cracked and it is to be welded..

Q4. Write short notes on the followings:

a) Slag inclusions.

b) Cold cracking.

c) Soldering

d) GTAW.

e) Cold welding

Q5. Compare the gas-metal arc welding and gas-tungsten arc welding..

Q6. What are the advantages of low temperature joining methods over fusion welding ?.

Q7. What are the advantages of AC arc welding ? Why is it difficult to start AC arc ? How is it simplified in practice ?

Q9. List the various welding defects and suggest the remedial steps to be taken against each type of defect. ----------