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Q Bank - Electrical Engineering - Part -1.2 - GENERAL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

 Q Bank - Electrical Engineering - Part -1.2 - GENERAL ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 


101 The combined Earth resistance of 33kV/11 kV receiving station should not exceed

(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohms

(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms

102 The combined earth resistance of 11 kV/415 V Sub-station should not exceed

(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 2 ohms

(c) 10 ohms (d) 20 ohms

103 The integration time employed by supply authorities for recording M.D. for a 33

kV/415 V, 10 MVA Sub-station is –

(a) 5 minutes

(c) 45 minutes

 (b) 15 minutes

(d) 60 minutes

104 While designing a sub-station anticipated future loads in the next … years are taken

(a) 1 year

(c) 20 years

 (b) 2 years

(d) 5-7 years

105 As per the present Tariff the minimum power factor of sub-station should be

(a) 0.8

(c) 0.90

 (b) 0.85

(d)0.95

106 The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground of 33 kV lines, across

the load.

 (a) 3 M (b) 4 M

 (c) 6.1 M (d) 14 M 

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107 The minimum clearance of lowest conductor from the ground of 33 kV lines, along a

street.

 (a) 5.8 M

 (b) 4.0 M

 (c) 3.0 M

 (d) 14 M

108. The minimum vertical clearance from 11 kV line to any part of building.

 (a) 2.0 M (b) 10.M

 (c) 3.7 M (d) 6.0 M

109. The minimum Horizontal clearance of 11 kV lines from any buildings.

 (a) 1.2 M

 (c) 6.1 M

 (b) 3.7 M

 (d) 10 M


110. The Visible, Audible, Partial discharge at the surface of conductor at high

voltage is called –

 (a) Skin affect

 (c) Creep

 (b) Corona

 (d) None of these

111. For maintaining power supply quantity the frequency variation of power supply are

restricted to

 (a) ± 1 % (b) ± 3 %

(c) ± 0.5% (d) ± 10%

112. The 3 phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed

(a) 2.5.% to 5% (b) 20%

(c) 25% (d) 10%

113. For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not

exceed.

(a) 5 Hz/Sec. (b) 10 Hz/Sec

(c) 1 HZ/Sec (d) 3 Hz/ Sec.

114. In Thermal Power plants the generator used are

(a) AC 3 Ø, Induction Generators.

(b) AC 3 Ø, Synchronous Generators.

(c) D.C. Shunt Generators.

(d) AC 1 Ø Synchronous Generators.

115. The highest system voltage of normal 33 kV System for the purpose of design of

equipments is

(a) 30 kV. (b) 36 kV.

(c) 33 kV. (d) 66 kV.


116. The Rod gap on the L.V.side of 11 kV/415, 250 kVA Transformer is

(a) 300 mm. (b) 100 mm.

(c) 50 mm. (d) Rod gap L.A. is not provided for LV side of Transformer. 

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117. The rated voltage of L.A. for 11 kV/415V Transformer Protection is

(a) 11 kV. (b) 12 kV.

(c) 9 kV. (d) 24 kV.

118. For medium sized 11 kV/415 v, 500 kVA Transformer sub-station, the type of L.A.

used are

(a) Station type. (b) Line type.

(c) Distribution type. (d) None of these.

119. The line type L.A. used for our 11 kV and 33 kV Sub-station are having a standard

normal discharge current (Peak).

 (a) 5 KA. (b) 10 KA.

(c) 1.5 KA. (d) 2.5 KA.

120. The span of supports for 11 kV over head lines should not exceed.

 (a) 100 m. (b) 65 m.

(c) 30 m. (d) 27 m.

121. The testing of relays should be performed at a interval of

(a) 6 months (b) 12 months

(c) 18 months (d) 24 months


122. If any live conductor in the circuit is entangled with tree branch ______ operates.

(a) EFR (b) OVR

(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay


123. _______ relay operates if there is a heavy increase in load current.

(a) EFR (b) OVR

(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay


124. _______ relay indicates the temperature rise of a transformer.

(a) EFR (b) OVR

(c) OLR (d) Thermal relay

125. If the relay setting of 60/5 CT is at 3.75, then the tripping will be at

(a) 60 Amp. (b) 45 Amp.

 (c) 30 Amp. 

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126. The normal SPG of electrolyte of lead acid battery should be

 (a) 1.160 (b) 1.180 (c) 1.220 (d) 1.240


 127. The terminal voltage of a fully charged lead acid cell is

 (a) 1.8 V (b) 2.0 V (c) 2.2 V (d) 2.4 V


128. The terminal voltage of a lead acid cell should not fall below

 (a) 1.6 V (b) 1.8 V (c) 2.0 V (d) 2.2 V


129. The normal charging rate of 120 AH lead acid battery set is

 (a) 4 A (b) 8 A (c) 12 A (d) 16 A


130. The ratio of distil water and acid used to prepare new electrolyte for lead

acid cell is

 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

131. Following law is applicable in the working of lead acid cell

(a) Faradays law of self induction.

(b) Faradays law of mutual induction

(c) Faradays law of electrolysis.

(d) Newton’s law of motion.

132. The capacity of storage battery is expressed as

(a) No. of recharges it can take

(b) Time for which it can be used

(c) No. of cells it contain

(d) Ampere hour it can deliver.

133. Sedimentation in lead acid cell occurs due to

(a) Overcharging at high rate.

(b) Slow charging at low rate.

(c) Over discharge at low rate.

(d) Non-utilization for long periods.

134. Even when not in use, a lead acid battery should be recharged once in

 (a) Six week (b) Six days

(c) Three months (d) Six months.

135. First step to be carried out before starting work starting work on faulty portion of

overhead line is to

 (a) Earth the line on both the ends of the portion

 (b) Obtain the permit to work

 (c) Bring ladder or crane

 (d) Climb on the pole immediately 

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136. Before starting the work on faulty circuit it should be ensured that

 (a) The faulty portion has been isolated from the power supply

 (b) The worker is strong enough to climb the pole

 (c) The cable is not deep enough to dig

 (d) None of the above.

137. The electric overhead line on which work is to be carried out should be necessarily

earthed on both the ends to

 (a) Dispense the charge stored between the conductors due to capacitive effect

 (b) To bring the line at zero potential

 (c) Both a & b

 (d) None of the above

138. One can protect himself from electric shock while working on live circuit by wearing

gloves of good

 (a) Conducting material

 (b) Insulating material

 (c) Semiconductor material

 (d) Any of the above.

139. Which of the following are principal safety precautions

 (a) Don’t touch live wire or equipment with bare hands

 (b) Before switching on supply, see no one is working in the line

 (c) Use rubber gloves and meeting.

 (d) All of the above.

140. Which of the following is most effective method of artificial respiration

 (a) Mouth to mouth air pumping method

 (b) To use bicycle air pump

 (c) Both a & b

 (d) None of the above

141. Which material is recommended as fire extinguisher in electrical cases

 (a) Carbon tetra chloride

 (b) Carbon dioxide

 (c) Sulphur hexafluoride

 (d) Any of the above

142. Which of the following is to be necessarily kept in a electric substation

 (a) First aid box

 (b) Stretcher

 (c) Earthing rod

 (d) All of the above 

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143. The warning board to be provided, on the switch of the line on which work is going

on

 (a) Man working

 (b) Danger

 (c) Keep away

 (d) None of the above

144. Staff competent to work on overhead line of MV should be

 (a) Unskilled

 (b) Semi skilled

 (c) Highly skilled

 (d) Any of the above

 145. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

 a) coal b) oil c) Natural gas d) Solar

 146. The law of conservation of energy states that energy

 a) can be created and destroyed

 b) is destroyed in the process of burning

 c) cannot be converted from one

 d) is neither destroyed nor created form to another


 147. Absolute pressure is

 a) Gauge Pressure

 b) Atmospheric Pressure

 c) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric Pressure

 d) Gauge Pressure – Atmospheric Pressure


 148. 100 kCals expressed as kilojoules would be

 a) 418.7 kJ b) 4.187 Joules

 c) 4.187 kJ d) 41.87 kJ


 149. When heat flows from one place to another by means of a liquid or gas, it is being

transferred by

 a) radiation b) conduction

 c) sublimation d) convection

 150. How many watts are in a hp?

 a) 700 b) 725 c) 740 d) 746

 151. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that forces current to flow is

 a) watts b) amps c) ohms d) volts

 152. Voltage and resistance in an electrical circuit are related by Ohm's law and determine

 a) resistance b) voltage c) the type of circuit d) current

 

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 153. The characteristic of an electrical circuit that opposes current flow is

 a) resistance b) voltage c) friction d) power

 154. The instrument used to measure RPM is

 a) Fyrite b) Pyrometer

 c) Ultrasonic flow meter d) Stroboscope

 155. Which of the following terms does not refer to specific energy consumption

 a) Kwh/ton b) kcal/kL c) kJ/kg d) kg


 156. Which of the following will not motivate the employees for energy conservation ?

 a) Incentive b) Recognition c) Reward d) Threatening

 157. The heat input required for generating ‘one’ kilo watt-hour of electrical output is

called as ___.

 a) Efficiency b) Heat Rate c) Calorific Value d) Heat value

158. Which of the voltage is not available for Indian distribution system?

 a) 33 kV b) 11 kV c) 280 V d) 433 V

159. The power loss in transmission/distribution line depends on ____.

 a) Current in the line b) Resistance of the line c) Length of the line d) All

160. If distribution of power is raised from 11 kV to 66 kV, the voltage drop would lower

by

 a) 6 times b) 1/6 times c) 36 times d) 1/36 times

161. If the distribution voltage is raised from 11 kV to 33 kV, the line loss would be:

 a) Less by 1/9 b) More by 9 times c) No change d) None of the above

162. The maximum demand of an industry, if trivector motor records 3600 KVA for 15

minutes and 3000 kVA for next 15 minutes over a recording cycle of 30 minutes

is_____.

 a) 3600 kVA b) 3000 kVA c) 3300 kVA d) 600 kVA

163. Presenting the load demand of a consumer against time of the day is known as___.

 a) Time Curve b) Load curve c) Demand curve d) Energy curve


164. The vector sum of active power and reactive power required is ____.

 a) Apparent Power b) Power Factor c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand

165. Power factor is the ratio of ____ and apparent power.

 a) Active power b) Reactive power c) Load Factor d) Maximum Demand

166. The kVAr rating required for improving the power factor of a load operating at 500

kW and 0.85 power factor to 0.95 is ________.

 a) 145 kVAr b) 500 kVAr c) 50 kVAr d) 100 kVAr 

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167. The rating of the capacitor at motor terminals should not be greater than _____ .

 a) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at full load

 b) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at no load

 c) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at half load

 d) magnetizing kVAr of the motor at 75% load

168. The percentage reduction in distribution loses when tail end power factor raised from

0.8 to 0.95 is ________.

 a) 29% b) 15.8% c) 71% d) 84%

169. If voltage applied to a 415 V rated capacitors drops by 10%, its VAR output drops

by ____.

 a) 23% b) 87% c) 19% d) 10%

170. The ratio between the number of turns on the primary to the turns on the secondary

of a transformer is know as:

 a) turns ratio b) efficiency

 c) winding factor d) power factor

171. The ratio of overall maximum demand of the plant to the sum of individual

maximum demand of various equipments is ______.

 a) load factor b) diversity Factor

 c) demand Factor d) maximum demand

172. Core losses in transformer are caused by ______.

 a) Hysteresis loss b) Eddy current loss c) both a & b d) None

173. The load losses in transformer vary according to ________.

 a) Loading of transformer b) Square of loading of transformer

 c) Cube of loading of transformer d) None

174. The total losses in a transformer operating at 50% load with designed no load and

load losses at 2 kW and 20 kW respectively are _______.

 a) 7 kW b) 12 kW c) 4.5 kW d) 22 kW

175. The total amount of harmonics present in the system is expressed using ___.

 a) Total Harmonic Factor b) Total Harmonic Ratio

 c) Total Harmonic Distortion d) Crest Factor

176. The 5th and 7th harmonic in a 50 Hz power environment will have:

 a) voltage and current distortions with 55 Hz & 57 Hz

 b) voltage and current distortions with 500 Hz & 700 Hz

 c) voltage and current distortions with 250 Hz & 350 Hz

 d) no voltage and current distortion at all

177. The type of energy possessed by the charged capacitor is

 a) Kinetic energy b) Electrostatic c) Potential d) Magnetic 

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178. The energy stored in the bonds of atoms and molecules is called

 a) Kinetic energy b) Chemical energy

 c) Potential energy d) Magnetic energy

179. Active power consumption of motive drives can be determined by using one of the

following relations.

 a) √3 x V x I b) √3 x V2

 x I x cosϕ

 c) √3 x V x I2

 x Cosϕ d) √3 x V x I x Cosϕ

180. The grade of energy can be classified as low, high, extra ordinary. In case of

electrical energy it would fall under ____ category. (EM/EA)

 a) low grade b) extra ordinary grade

 c) high grade d) none of the above

181. The portion of apparent power that doesn’t do any work is termed as

 a) Apparent power b) Active power

 c) Reactive Power d) None of the above

182. Power factor (PF) is the ratio of (EM/EA)

 a) Apparent power & Active power b) Active power & Reactive power

 c) Active Power & Apparent power d) Apparent power & Reactive power

183. kVA is also called as

 a) reactive power b) apparent power c) active power d) captive power

184. The energy consumed by a 50 kW motor loaded at 40 kW over a period of 4 hours is

 a. 50 kWh b) 160 kWh c) 40 kWh d) 2000 kWh

185. The ratio of maximum demand to the connected load is termed as

 a) Load factor b) Demand factor

 c) Contract demand d) none of the above

186. A single phase induction motor is drawing 10 amps at 230 volts. If the operating

power factor of the motor is 0.9, then the power drawn by the motor is

 a) 2.3 kW b) 3.58 kW c) 2.07 kW d) 2.70 kW

187. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 OC is

termed as

 a) Specific heat b) Heat capacity c) One Calorie d) Sensible heat

 188. Nameplate kW or HP rating of a motor indicates

 a) input kW to the motor b) output kW of the motor

 c) minimum input kW to the motor d) maximum input kW to the motor 

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 Objective Question Bank for General Services December, 2013

189. The quantity of heat required to change 1 kg of the substance from liquid to vapor state

without change of temperature is termed as

 a) Latent heat of fusion b) Latent heat of vaporization

 c) Heat capacity d) Sensible heat

190. The latent heat of condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 °C to form water at 100 °C, it gives

out the heat of

 a) 580 kCal b) 540 kCal c) 620 kCal d) 2260 kCal

191. The specific heat of ____ is very high compared to other common substances listed below.

 a) Lead b) Mercury c) Water d) Alcohol

192. The property of viscosity of liquid fuels:

 a) decreases with decreasing temperature

 b) increases with increasing temperature

 c) decreases with increasing temperature

 d) increases with decreasing temperature

193. The quantity of heat Q, supplied to a substance to increase its temperature depends upon the

following.

 a) sensible heat added b) latent heat of fusion

 c) specific heat of the substance d) heat capacity

194. Unit of specific heat in SI system is_________.

 a) joule /kg °C b) kg/cm2

 c) kcal/m3

 d) kcal/cm2

195. The change by which any substance is converted from a gaseous state to liquid state is

termed as -----

 a) condensation b) Evaporation c) Fusion d) Phase change

196. The method of producing power by utilizing steam generated for process in the boiler is

termed as -----

 a) Extraction b) Cogeneration c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b 


101 - a 102 - b 103 - b 104 - d 105 - c 106 - c 107 - a 108 – c 109 - b 110 - b 111 - b 112 - a 113 - c 114 - b 115 - b 116 - d 117 - c 118 - b 119 - a 120 – c 121 - b 122 - a 123 - c 124 - d 125 - b 126 - c 127 - c 128 - b 129 - c 130 - d 131 - c 132 - d 133 - a 134 - a 135 - b 136 - a 137 - c 138 - b 139 - d 140 - a 141 - b 142 - d 143 - a 144 - c 145 - d 146 - d 147 - c 148 - a 149 - d 150 - d 151 - d 152 - d 153 - a 154 - d 155 - d 156 - d 157 - b 158 - c 159 - d 160 - b 161 - a 162 - c 163 - b 164 - a 165 - a 166 - a 167 - b 168 - a 169 - c 170 - c 171 - b 172 - c 173 - b 174 - a 175 - c 176 - c 177 - b 178 - b 179 - d 180 – c 181 - c 182 - c 183 - b 184 - b 185 - b 186 - c 187 - c 188 - b 189 - b 190 - b 191 - c 192 - c 193 - c 194 - a 195 - a 196 - b  


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INDEX II

Q Bank - Establishment / Personnel Dept. (82) Q Bank - Electrical Engineering (79) Q Bank - OS / Clerk / Typist (71) Q B Engg (P Way & Work) (67) Q BANK - Operating (62) Group 'B' Exam (60) Q Bank - APO ( Asst. Personnel Officer) (57) QUESTION BANK WITH ANSWER (55) Q B Establishment (47) Q Bank - Goods Guards (45) Q Bank - OHE/TRD/PSI (36) Q B - CIVIL ENGINEERING (AEN) (27) Q B - Welfare Inspector (27) Q BANK - C & W ( Carriage & Wagon ) (26) Q Bank - Account (24) Q BANK - LOCO (23) Q BANK Exam - Station Master (23) Q Bank - Commercial (21) Q Bank - AOM (19) Q BANK - Station Master (18) Q Bank - S & T (14) 1. Syllabus (13) Q Bank - D & AR (Discipline and Appeals Rule) (12) Q Bank - Medical (12) Q Bank - Posts (Civil Engineering & P way) Dept (12) 2. Q Bank - Group D To C (11) INDEX (11) QB - ENGINEERING ( MECHANICAL ) (11) Q Bank - LOCO (Diesel) (9) Q Bank - ACM (Assistant Commercial Manager) (9) Q BANK - Jr Engineer ( Diesel Mechanical ) (8) Q BANK - LOCO (AC) (8) Q Bank - Law Assistant (8) Q Bank - AME/AWM (7) Q Bank - Group D To C (6) Q Bank - Stores (5) RRB EXAM (5) NTPC (4) Q Bank - ADSTE / ASTE (4) Q Bank - AEE (4) Q Bank - CLI (4) Q Bank - General Knowledge (4) Q Bank - Publicity Inspector (4) Q Bank - Rajbhasha (राजभाषा) (4) Question & Answer (4) Q Bank - Appointment On Compassionate Ground Exam (3) Q Bank - Commercial Instructor Exam (3) Q Bank - Engineering (Bridge) (3) Q Bank - IT (3) Q Bank - Protocol Inspector (3) Q Bank - RPF Department (3) Short Notes (3) Q BANK - Jr Engineer ( Mechanical ) (2) Q Bank - C & M (2) Q Bank - Carpenter (2) Q Bank - General English (2) Q Bank - Jr Engineer (Tele) (2) Q Bank - Ministerial Staff (2) Q Bank - Track Machine (2) Q Bank -Section Controler (2) Video (2) ABB (1) FAQ (1) GDCE Exam (1) IRMS (Indian Railway Management Service (1) JUNIOR ENGINEER (Non -AC) GRADE - II (1) Minimum Wages Act (1) Project & Planning (1) Q BANK & Answer - C & W ( Carriage & Wagon ) (1) Q BANK - Shunting Master (1) Q Bank - Instructor (1) Q Bank - AMM (1) Q Bank - All Department (1) Q Bank - Ballast Train Checker (1) Q Bank - CCTC (1) Q Bank - Complaints Inspector (1) Q Bank - GK (Computer) (1) Q Bank - Leave Rule (1) Q Bank - Mason (1) Q Bank - Maths (1) Q Bank - NPS (New Pension Scheme) (1) Q Bank - OS / Clerk Typist (1) Q Bank - Pass Rule (1) Q Bank - Planning Inspector (1) Q Bank - Railway (GK) (1) Q Bank - Stenographer (1) Q Bank - Traffic Costing Inspector (1) Question Bank - Technicians of TLAC Group. (1) Short Notes - Establishment (1) Short Notes - Operating / Traffic (1)