QUESTION BANK - SELECTION OF OFFICE SUPDT / Gr.II

1 - QUESTION BANK - SELECTION OF OFFICE SUPDT / Gr. II AGAINST 20% LDCE QUOTA 

Syllabus: 

I. Office Procedure: 

a) Dak Handling 

b) Maintenance of files 

c) Record Keeping 

d) Maintenance of Statistics 

II. Writing Skills: 

a) Letter/DO Writing 

b) Notifications 

c) Note Writing 

d) Speaking Orders.

III. Award of works in Works Programme. 

IV. Procedure for Stores Procurement. 

V. Railway Organisational Structure. 

VI. Railway Housing (Railway Quarters allotment) Policy. 

VII. Uniform Policy. 

VIII. Booking of Running Staff and non-running travelling staff. 

IX. Discipline & Appeal Rules. 

X. Recognition of Trade Unions. Facilities to Office bearers of recognized unions/Associations. Dealing with Unrecognised Unions/Associations.

XI. Medical Examination and facilities available to Railway employees.

XII. Audit and Accounts Narrative Report. Draft Paras and their disposal. 

XIII. Canons of Financial Propriety. 

XIV. Classification of demands for grants. 

XV. Man-Power Planning. 

• Vacancy Bank Register. 
• Creation of Posts. 
• Bench Marking. 
• Supernumerary Posts. 
• Redeployment of surplus staff.

XVI. Pay and allowances. 

XVII. Pass Rules. 

XVIII. Leave Rules. 

XIX. Railway Pension Rules. 

XX. General Conditions of Service. 

XXI. Hours of Employment Regulations. 

XXII. Labour Laws (at least in their basic form)

 1. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

 2. Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act 

3. Payment of Wages Act, 1936

 4. Minimum Wages Act, 1948

 5. Workmen Compensation Act, 1923 

XXIII. Right to Information Act. 

XXIV. Official Language Rules and Policy. 

Note: Questions set in the paper will be normally to assess the writing and analytical power of the candidates w.r.t. various topics as above which circumscribe various ministerial staff. Efforts should be not to tilt the balance in favour of one particular discipline. 2 

I. Office Procedure: 

(A) Objective:

 1. The receipt of dak, except ______, will be acknowledged by the recipient signing his name in full and in ink with date and designation. (ordinary postal dak) 

2. _______ dak will be separated from other dak and dealt with first. (urgent) 

3. All covers except those addressed to officers by name or those bearing security grading will be opened by the Central Registry. (say true or false)

 4. All opened dak, will be date stamped except the covers of unopened classified dak. (say true or false)

 5. All dak receipts submitted to officers will move in pads conspicuously labeled as __________. (Dak Pad). 

6. The dealing hand will check the enclosures of the dak receipts and if any is found missing, initiate action to __________. (obtain/return it. choose correct answer)

 7. The two main parts of a file are _____ and _____ (notes and correspondence)

 8. Every page in each part of the file should be consecutively numbered in separate series. (say true or false)

9. The notes or correspondence portion of the file is said to have been become bulky, if it exceeds __________ folios. (300)

 10. In the notings, the verbatim reproduction of the extracts from the paper under consideration should not be attempted. (say true or false) 

11. Extracts of a rule or instruction will be placed on the file and attention to it will be drawn in the note, rather than producing the relevant provisions.(say true or false)

 12. The apparent errors or mis-statements in a note can be pointed out in courteous and temperate language free from personal remarks. (say true or false) 

13. The dealing hand will append his full signature with date on the _________ his note. (left below). 

14. An Officer will append his full signature on ________ side of the note with name, designation and date. (right hand) 

15. Pasting over a note or a portion of it is not desirable. (say true or false) 

16. File system is an arrangement of papers by ________. (subjects) 

17. Before opening a new file, the dealing hand will ascertain the __________ to which the paper under consideration relates. (standard head) 

18. As far as possible, there should be a separate file for each _______. (distinct aspect of the subject). 

19. The movement of files shall be entered in the ________ register. (file movement) 

20. No current files will be issued to other sections except against ________. (written requisition).

21. Under classification of records class ‘A’ means _________ (keep and microfilm) 

22. The record classified as Class ‘A’ does not qualify for permanent preservation for administrative purposes. (say true or false) 

23. The Class B record means ___________ . (keep but do not microfilm) 

24. The class C record means __________ (keep for specified period only)

25. Ephemeral files are destroyed as soon as they are ______ old. (one year) 3 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What is docketing? What is the procedure for numbering of pages in a file?

 2. What is the action of the dealing hand on the receipts of the dak?

 3. What procedure is to be followed for receipt, registration and distribution of dak? 

4. What general principles are to be observed in regard to action on receipts of dak?

 5. What are the constituents of a file? Explain briefly. 

6. What are the guidelines on writing of notes? 

7. What are the provisions regarding modifications to notes? 

8. What is a file? What are the guidelines for movement of files?

 9. What is part file? What are the guidelines regarding part files? 

10. Write briefly about the filing system.

 11. What is the classification of records? Explain briefly each class.

12. Write short notes on the following:

(a) Urgent Dak 

(b) Security grading 

(c) PUC 

(d) File 

(e) Docketing 

(f) Classified Dak 

(g) Part file

 II. Writing Skills: 

(B) Descriptive:

 1. What are guidelines regarding addressing communications to Officers by name?

 2. Drafting of Demi-official letter on different matters. 

3. Drafting of notifications for calling applications in connection with a selection. 

4. Writing of notes on different issues. 5. Drafting of speaking orders.

 6. What are your suggestions to effect economy in staff expenditure?

 III. Award of works in Works Programme: 

(A) Objective: 

1. In case of open tenders, the minimum period required from date of publication to the date of opening the tender shall be _______. (1month) 

2. Copies of tender notices may be displayed in the offices of field executives, HOD’s offices for a period of not less than ________. (21 days)

 3. For limited tenders, _______ days’ notice shall be given. (Fifteen)

 4. In case of quotation tenders, ______ days’ notice shall be given. (seven) 

5. The tender notice should be sent to CPRO’s office _______ days in advance for publication in Hind and other national dailies. (Fifty) 

6. List of Approved works (LAW) costing_____________. (more than 30 lakhs & less than 50 lakhs) 4 

7. Works for which budget grant was not provided in the sanctioned budget are called _________. (OOT)

8. ________ is the nodal officer for preparation of Works Programme and sending it to Railway Board. (PCE) 

9. SEMD accepted from the contractor borne on approved list for works costing 20 lakhs and 50 lakhs shall be Rs. ____________-. (Rs. 50,000/-)

10. The security deposit to be paid by the contractor for works costing more than 2 lakhs and upto 2 crores shall be ____________. (Rs. 5 lakhs) 

11. Earnest Money to be deposited along with tenders for works above Rs. 50 lakhs is Rs. ___________. (Max. 1 lakh) 

12. Limited tenders are called through ________. (contractors from approved list) 

13. ___________ is an example for piece work contract. (zonal works) 

14. Deposit work means _____________. (Works of other Government Department done by Railways)

15. Urgency certificate is necessary in the case of __________. (repairs to damages to line caused by floods)

16. The powers of Divisional Officers to accord administrative approval to Lumpsum works is upto __________. (Nil) 

17. Powers of JAG Officers in granting technical sanction for tack renewal works is upto __________. (Rs. 1 crore)

18. What are the powers of JAG in calling open tenders? (Full Powers) 

19. The powers of DRMs in inviting single tenders in case of accidents is upto __________ subject to annual ceiling of Rs. 50 lakhs. (10 lakhs)

20. The powers of JAG officers in accepting open tenders is upto ________. (upto 30 lakhs) 

21. Revenue/Bankers solvency certificate is not required while calling tenders above 10 lakhs upto one crore. (say true or false) 

22. Monetary value of Revenue/Banker’s solvency certificate required while calling open tenders above one crore is ______. (40% of tender value of advertised work) 

23. Limited tenders can be invited from contractors borne on the approve list. (say true or false) 24. Limited tenders can be called upto a monetary ceiling of Rs. ______. (Rs. 1 crore) 

25. The lowest authority competent to approve calling of limited tenders upto Rs. 10 lakhs is ________. (SAG Officer) 

26. Limited tenders in the range of more than 10 lakhs upto 25 lakhs can be invited with the approval of the authority of the rank of ______. (DRM) 

27. PHOD is competent to approve calling of limited tenders of __________. (more than 25 lakhs and upto Rs. 50 lakhs) 

28. CAOR is competent to approve calling of limited tenders of _________. (more than Rs. 50 lakhs and upto Rs. 75 lakhs) 

29. The monetary slab for Class D contractor is ________. (upto Rs. 10 lakhs) 

30 The monetary slab for Class C contractor is ________. (more than 10 lakhs & upto Rs. 25 lakhs) 

31. The monetary slab for Class B contractor is ________. (more than 25 lakhs & up upto Rs. 50 lakhs) 5 

32. The monetary slab for Class A contractor is ________. (more than 50 lakhs & upto Rs. 1 crore) 

33. The number of monetary slabs fixed for categorizing the contractors in the approved list is __________. (four) 

34. The validity of approved list of contractors is __________. (three years) 35. There will be separate approve lists for Open Line and Construction Organisations for each identified category of works. (say true or false) 

36. Approved list of Class A contractors in constructions organization is maintained by ___________. (CAOR) 

37. The accepting authority for enlistment in the approved list of Class A contractors in Open Line is _________. (PHOD)

 38. The accepting authority for enlistment in the approved list of Class D contractors in Construction Organisation is _________. (Dy. CE/C) 

39. The fee chargeable for registration in the approved list of Class A contractors is Rs. __________-. (Rs. 15,000/-) 

40. The fee chargeable for registration in the approved list of Class B contractors is Rs. __________-. (Rs. 10,000/-) 41. The fee chargeable for registration in the approved list of Class C contractors is Rs. __________-. (Rs. 7,500/-) 

42. The fee chargeable for registration in the approved list of Class D contractors is Rs. __________-. (Rs. 5,000/-) 

43. The standing earnest money for works costing upto Rs. 10 lakhs is Rs. _______. (Rs. 15,000/-) 

44. The standing earnest money for works costing between Rs. 10 lakhs & Rs. 25 lakhs is Rs. _______. (Rs. 35,000/-) 

45. The standing earnest money for works costing between Rs. 25 lakhs & Rs. 50 lakhs is Rs. _______. (Rs. 75,000/-) 

46. The standing earnest money for works costing between Rs. 50 lakhs & 1 crore is Rs. _______. (Rs. 1,50,000/-) 

47. The authority competent to approve for works of urgent nature before calling special limited tenders under two pocket system of tendering is _______. (GM)

48. The authority competent to approve for works of special nature before calling special limited tenders under two pocket system of tendering is _______. (PHOD) 

49. Minimum number of contractors/agencies for calling quotations is ___. (three) 

50. For calling single tender finance concurrence is necessary. (say true or false)

51. Preliminary Works Progaramme is divided into ______ volumes. (four) 

52. Works Programme is prepared under Demand No. ______. (16)

53. LSWP works costing less than 30 lakhs shall be approved by ________. (DRM) 

54. List of works costing more than 15 lakhs and below 30 lakhs require the administrative approval of __________. (PHOD/HOD)

55. LsWP works costing less than 15 lakhs require administrative approval of ____. (DRM) 

56. Works having no budget grant and not appearing in pink book/Green Book/LSWP is called _____________. (Out of turn works) 

57. Nodal officer for processing out of turn works is __________. (CPDE/CGE)

58. Sanctioning authority for processing out of turn works is _______. (GM) 6 

59. Power of GM to sanction safety related works under out of turn works is ______. (upto RS. 50 l;akhs) 

60. Power of GM to sanction other than safety related works under out of turn works is _____________. (upto RS. 30 lakhs) 

61. Safety related works have to be completed from the date of sanction with in _______ months. (eight months) 

62. Sponsoring authority for works under Plan head of ‘Gauge Conversion’ is _______. (COM)

63. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Doubling’ is _________. (COM) 

64. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Rail Electrification Projects’ is _________. (CEE)

65. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Staff Quarters’ is _________. (CPO/PCE) 

66. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘amenities of Staff’ is _________. (CPO)

67. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Other specified works’ is _________. (PCE) 

68. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Bridge Works’ is _________. (PCE) 

69. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Labour Welfare facilities’ is _________. (CPO)

70. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Passenger amenities’ is _________. (CCM) 

71. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Tack Renewal Works’ is _________. (PCE) 

72. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Workshops including production units’ is _________. (PCE, CME,CBE) 

73. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘New Line Works’ is _________. (COM)

74. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Road Safety Works – ROB/RUB’ is _________. (PCE) 

75. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Medical Facilities’ is _________. (CMD, CPO)

76. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of ‘Metropolitan Railway Projects’ is _________. (COM,CCM) 

77. List of approved works are the works costing __________. (more than 30 lakhs and below 50 lakhs)

78. Lumpsum work are the works costing __________. (less than 30 lakhs)

79. List of works pertaining to MP and Rolling Stock are included under plan head ________________. (Other Specified works) 

80. A profit center is the office responsible for both _________. (Costs and Revenue) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. Write briefly about Project abstract Estimate. 7 

2. Write Short Notes on -

(i) Earnest Money Deposit 

(ii) Standard Earnest Money Deposti 

(iii) Security Deposit 

(iv) Limited Tenders 

(v) Single Tenders 

(vi) Open Tenders 

(vii) Approved List of Contactors

(viii) Tender Notice 

(ix) Tender Committee 

(x) Deposit Works 

(xi) Price variation clause 

3. Explain briefly about - 

(i) Arbitration 

(ii) Urgency Certificate

(iii) material modification 

(iv) material at site account 

(v) site order book 

(vi) Works register

(vii) Two packet system of Contract. 

(viii) SWP 

(ix) OOT 

(x) SRSF 

(xi) LAW

4. Write about Works Programme. Describe the various stages involved in preparation of Works Programme. 

5. Differentiate: 

(i) Pink Book and Green Book 

(ii) LSWP Works and OOT Works 

(iii) Single Tender and Limited Tender 

(iv) Limited Tender & Open Tender

(v) Earnest Money Deposit & Security Deposit 

6. What is meant by ‘briefing note’? What points are to be noted in that note? 

7. What salient features to be considered while calling Open Tenders? 

8. What is meant by variations? What is the procedure to process for sanction of variation of quantities in a contract agreement? 

IV. Procedure for Stores Procurement. 

(A) Objective: 

1. Procurement of safety items are done through suppliers approved by ______ (RDSO) 

2. Stock verification for T&P items is done once in two years. (say true or false)

3. PAC items are purchased on ________ tender basis. (single)

 4. In a rate contract, not only rate but also quantity of item is fixed.(say true or false) 

5. Sales Tax/VAT is applicable on packing charges. (say true or false) 

6. All payments towards security deposit should be in favour of ___________ only. (Chief Cashier) 

7. In running contracts, quantity is fixed but rate is not fixed. (Say true or false) 

8. Full form of PAC is _____________. (Propriety Articles Certificate) 

9. The authority to finalise Rate Contract/Running Contract is ___. (Railway Board) 

10. The prescribed form for placing indents for procurement of Non-stock items is _________. (S.1313) 

11. DGS&D stands for __________. 

12. PO stands for _____________________. 

13. CST stands for _________________. 

14. MODVAT stands for ______________________. 

15. FOR stand for ____________________. 8 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. Explain briefly about Rate Contracts and Running Contracts.

2. What is AAC? What is its relevance to the procurement of stores? 

3. Explain briefly about Tender Committees. 

4. What is local purchase? When do items are procured through local purchase? What are the limitations in the powers for local purchase? 

5. Distinguish between: 

(a) Rate Contract & Running Contract

(b) Local purchase & Spot purchase

(c) EMD & SD 

(d) Single Offer & Single Tender 

6. What is stock verification? What action to be taken on receipt of stock sheet?

7. Explain the system of disposal of scrap on Railways. 

8. Briefly explain about various types of tenders while procuring materials.

 9. What is spot purchase? When do items are procured through spot purchase? 

10. Write short notes on - 

(i) Stock Sheets 

(ii) Piece Work contract 

(iii) Purchase Order 

(iv) Price preference 

(v) Reserve price 

V. Railway Organisational Structure. 

(A) Objective: 

1. There are _______ centralized training institutions on Indian Railways (five) 

2. Railway Staff College is situated at __________. (Vadodara) 

3. Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering is situated at ______. (Pune)

4. Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunications is situated at ___________. (Secunderabad)

5. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering is situated at _____________. (Jamalpur) 

6. Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering is situated at ________.(Nasik)

7. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering also provides Apprenticeship training to the __________ Apprentices. (Special Class Railway)

8. RRT has no jurisdiction in respect of classification of any commodity. (say true or false)

9. RRT has jurisdiction in respect of fixation of lump sum rates. (say true or false) 

10. RRT has no jurisdiction in respect of fixation of wharfage and demurrage. (say true or false) 

11. RRT has been given the work in connection with the exercise of revisionary powers of General Manager in regard to dismissal, removal and compulsory retirement from service of Class III employees. (say true or false) 

12. RITES has been set up as a Limited Company registered under Companies Act. (say true or false) 

13. RITES renders consultation and management services. (say true or false) 9 

14. RITES renders consultation services both abroad and in India only in respect of Railways. (say true or false)

 15. RITES renders consultation/management services in respect of Roads, Ports and Harbours also. (say true or false) 

16. The headquarters of RRT is at _______. (Chennai)

 (B) Descriptive: . 

1.What are the objectives of Railway Management? 

2. Write briefly about the organizational structure of Indian Railways. 

3. Write briefly about the field organizations, attached and subordinate offices under the Ministry of Railways. 

4. What are the Centralised Training Institutions? Write briefly about them.

5. Write about setting up of RRT and its role in settling the complaints against Railway administration. 

6. Write Short Notes on: 

(a) Metropolitan Transport Projects 

(b) RDSO 

(c) RRT 

(d) RITES 

(e) IRCON 

(f) CAMTECH 

(g) CORE 

(h) RVNL 

(i) IRCTC 

7. How many zones are there on Indian Railways? Where are their Headquarters Offices? Explain the Organisational structure of Zonal Railway. 

8. Describe in brief the setting up & development of S.C. Railway and its divisions.

 9. The main business of Railways is to provide service for transport of public and the goods – If so, how can you justify setting up of schools/colleges on Railways?

 10. The main business of Railways is to provide service for transport of public and the goods – If so, what is the justification for setting up hospitals and dispensaries on Railways, when facilities for medical treatment are available in abundance? 

11. What are your suggestions for privatization of various activities of Railways? 

VI. Railway Housing (Railway Quarters allotment) Policy.

 (A) Objective: 

1. Staff in pay range of _______ are eligible for allotment of type IV quarters.

2. Quarter can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during leave. (four)

3. Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during sick leave. (indefinite period) 

4. Railway quarters can be retained for a period _____ on normal rent during suspension. (without any time limit)

5. Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on resignation/removal/dismissal from service. (one month)

 6. Quarter can be retained for ____ on normal rent in the event of death. (24 months) 

7. Quarter can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on retirement. (four)

8. In no case retention of accommodation should exceed _________ from the date of retirement or date of school season which ever is earlier. (08 months) 10

9. Railway quarters can be retained during entire period of leave ex India provided that it is certified that he would be _____. (reposted to his original place on expiry of his leave) 

10. Quarter can be retained for _____ on normal rent on transfer. (two months) 

11. Retention of Railway quarters in case of death is permissible for ______ months.

12. Special license fee is _______ times the normal license fees.

13. The staff rendered surplus and posted to another station are permissible 

14. When a Railway servant is transferred from one station to another, retention of quarters is permissible on account of sickness of his/her widowed mother. (say true or false). 

15. The occupier of Railway accommodation is charged rent either at the rate of ____ of his pay or the assessed rent whichever is less. (10%)

16. Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type IV quarter is Rs. ______ p.m. (Rs. 35/-)

17. Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type III quarter is Rs. ______ p.m. (Rs. 25/-) 

18. Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type II quarter is Rs. ______ p.m. (Rs. 15/-) 

19. The staff/officers who refused to accept accommodation offered to him on the new zone are eligible for retention of quarters at the old station. (say true or false) 

20. Retention of Railway accommodation on medical grounds beyond the permissible period as a special case requires the approval of __________. (Railway Board) 

21. Railway employees rendered surplus and posted to new stations necessitating change of residence may be permitted to retain Railway accommodation at the previous place of posting for a period of _______. (03 years) 

(B) Descriptive:

 1. What are the provisions regarding retention of Railway Quarters –

(i) on transfer 

(ii) on deputation

(iii) on death of an employee 

(iv) on retirement 

(v) on transfer to a newly formed division 

2. What are the instructions regarding allotment of quarters? What do you mean by ‘out of turn’ allotment of quarters? What are the provisions regarding out of turn allotment? 

3. Write short notes on: 

(i) Penal rent.

(ii) out of turn allotment of quarters

(iii) Retention of quarters to staff transferred to NF Railway.

(iv) Retention of quarters on transfer to KRCL.

(v) Retention of quarters on posting to RCTs. 

(vi) Retention of quarters on posting to newly forms Divisions/Zones. 

4. What is the procedure to be followed in processing cases for grant of retention of accommodation over and above the permissible period? 

5. What are the instructions regarding regulation of allotment of quarters to wife and husband working at the same station? 

6. What steps are to be taken to discourage Railway employees for unauthorized retention of Railway accommodation? 11 

7. Explain the provisions regarding retention of quarters during - 

(a) leave including extra ordinary leave,

(b) leave on medical grounds 

(c) study leave. 

8. Explain about policy of hiring of accommodation in Railways for residential use?

9. Write short notes on entitlement of various types of house accommodation based on revised scales recommended by Vth Central Pay Commission? 

VII. Uniform Policy: 

(A) Objective: 

1. Helmets may be issued as a T&P item to 10% of strength of Gangmen working at Bridge construction sites in tunnels. (say true or false) 

2. Railway employees in other than public image categories should be given cloth instead of stitched uniform. (say true or false) 

3. Assistant Guards are included in the public image categories for purpose of supply of cloth for uniform. (say true or false) 

4. Luminiscent vests may be issued as T&P items to staff in the category of yard masters. (say true or false). 5. Canteen staff are to be supplied woolen pant/salwar once in ______ years. (two) 

6. Gangmen should be supplied luminescent vests once in _______ years. (two) 

7. Loco Pilots are included in the public image categories. (say true or false) 

8. Waiters are included in the public image categories. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. Write short notes on luminescent vests and other items to maintenance staff working on the track? 2. What are the provisions regarding supply of cloth and payment of stitching charges to public image categories? 

3. What are the instructions regarding supply of uniform to Gangmen, Keymen, Mates and patrolmen? 

4. What are the instructions for payment of stitching charges for uniforms? 

VIII. Booking of Running and non-running railway staff: 

(A) Objective: 

1. The running duty of Loco and Traffic running staff should not ordinarily exceed ______ hours at a stretch. (ten)

2. Loco and Traffic running staff is entitled to claim rest after performing ____ hours of duty provided they have given 02 hours notice to the controller. (twelve) 

3. The duty at a stretch should be computed from ___________ for the purpose of computing duty of ten hours. (actual departure of the train)

4. For the purpose of overtime payment, the hours of work shall be calculated from __________ to ___________. (‘signing on’ to ‘singing off’) 12

5. Loco Running staff is entitled to engine attendance allowance of ______ minutes before the departure from engine shed and ______ minutes after arrival in the engine shed. (45 minutes; 15 minutes) 

6. Traffic Running staff is entitled to train attendance allowance of _______ minutes before the departure of the passenger train and _____ minutes after the arrival of the train. (30 minutes; 30 minutes) 

7. Traffic Running staff is entitled to train attendance allowance of ________ minutes before the departure of the goods train and ______ minutes after the arrival of the train. (45 minutes; 30 minutes) 

8. Running staff should not normally be away from headquarters for more than ________ days at a stretch. (three or four days)

9. Night duty should not normally be performed by the running staff for more than _________ nights at a stretch. (six) 

10. Loco and Traffic Running staff are allowed ______ hours rest at headquarters after a running duty of less than 08 hours. (12 hours)

11. Loco and Traffic Running staff are allowed ______ hours rest at headquarters after a running duty of 08 hours or more. (16 hours)

12. The running staff shall not be called upon to go out before availing ______ hours rest unless it is absolutely necessary in case of accidents and breakdowns. (six) 

13. The interval between the short trips shall be treated as ______ if it is equal to or less than one hour plus time allowed for train/engine allowance. (duty) 

14. Running staff shall be granted each month a rest of at least four periods of not less than _______ consecutive hours each or five periods of not less than ____ consecutive hours each including a full night. (30; 22) 

15. Travelling Ticket Examiners are classified as _______ workers under HOER. 

16. The duty hours of other running staff like traveling van clerks should be limited to _______ hours a week on the average. (54) 

17. Periodic rest to other running staff like Travelling Ticket Examiners may be given on the scale in the manner laid down for local and traffic running staff. (say true or false)

18. When a worker not provided with crew rest van travels on duty as passenger, all time spent for traveling beyond a radius of 08 kms from place of his duty shall be treated as _______. (duty) 

19. When a worker does not travel on any day beyond a radius of 08 kms from the place of duty, the time spent as passenger on duty will not count at duty. (say true or false) 

20. When a worker is provided with crew rest van, the time spent as passenger on duty will not count as duty. (say true or false) 

21. In case Railway employees who have to travel occasionally on duty outside their jurisdiction, _______ of travel time shall be credited towards duty hours. (50%) 

22. Saloon attendants are classified as ______ under HOER. (essentially intermittent) 

23. When saloon attendants are required to move out on line with saloon, _______ period of their traveling will be treated as duty. (whole) 

24. Loco running staff deputed to accompany dead engines may be allowed credit of ________ of the time spent during such journey. (2/3) 13 

25. In case of non-running staff, efforts should be made to provide at least one break in continuous night duty in ______ days in addition to weekly rest. (10) 

(B) Descriptive:

 1. Write short notes on: 

(i) Split shift 

(ii) Rest at out-station to loco and traffic running staff 

(iii) Periodic Rest to Running staff.

(iv) Tavelling spare on duty 

(v) Engine & Train Attendance

 (vi) Breach of Rest 

2. What are the instructions regarding Duty hours and Rest to Loco and Traffic Running staff? 

3. Explain briefly about the duty hours and periodic rest to other running staff like traveling ticket examiners. 

4. What is the procedure for computation of duty hours of Air-conditioned coach attendants and incharges?

5. What principles should be borne in mind while framing the duty rosters?

 IX. Railway Servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules, 1968

 (A) Objective: 

1. The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules came into force on ________. 

2. _______ form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension. 

3. Suspension is a penalty under D&A Rules, 1968. (say true or false) 

4. ________form is used for revocation of suspension.

 5. ________ form is used for imposition of minor penalty. 

6. ________ form is used for imposition of major penalty. 

7. ________ form is used for nomination of Inquiry Officer. 

8. ________ form is used to appoint a presenting officer.

 9. Subsistence allowance is equal to leave salary, which the employee would have drawn had he been on _____________________. 

10. In case the suspension period is prolonged beyond three months for reasons not attributable to the employee, the subsistence allowance may be increased by an amount not exceeding _______ % __________.

11. In case the suspension period is prolonged beyond three months for reasons attributable to the employee, the subsistence allowance may be decreased by an amount not exceeding _______ % __________. 

12. A retired Railway servant can act as a defense helper (say true or false)

13. Retired Railway servants cannot act as defense helper in more than ______ cases at a time.

14. The defense helper should be from the same Railway as that of the delinquent employee. (say true or false)

15. An official of a recognized trade union may assist in more than three pending disciplinary cases. (say true or false)

16. Termination of an employee on reduction of establishment is a penalty under D&A Rules, 1968. (say true or false) 14

17. Withholding of increments for failure to pass any departmental examination is not a penalty under D& A Rules, 1968. (say true or false).

18. Reversion of a Railway servant officiating in higher service on the ground that he is considered to be unsuitable for such higher grade is a penalty under D&A Rules, 1968. (say true or false) 

19. No appeal lies against any order of an _____________ nature or of the nature of ______________ of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceedings. 

20. Appeal lies against the order of suspension. (say true or false)

21. Any order interlocutory in nature passed by the inquiry can be appealed against. (say true or false) 

22. While disposing of an appeal, the appellate authority can order re-appointment of the delinquent employee. (say true or false). 

23. No appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within ______ days. 

24. The period of 45 days for preferring an appeal is reckoned from _______. (the date on which a copy of the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant) 

25. The appeal against an order of the disciplinary authority can be preferred by the appellant in his own name. (say true or false)

26. The appeal shall be preferred to any higher authority than the disciplinary authority. (say true or false) 

27. The appeal shall not contain any ______________________.

28. No order imposing/enhancing a penalty shall be made by any revising authority unless the Railway Servant concerned has been given ________ against the penalty proposed. 

29. No proceeding for revision shall be commenced until after the expiry of the period of limitation for __________. 

30. No proceeding for revision shall be commenced until after ________ of the appeal preferred. 

31. Rule 25.A of the RS(D&A) Rules deal with _____________. 

32. Every order or notice under RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 shall be served in person on the Railway servant concerned or communicated to him by _____________. 

33. An authority not lower than ___________________ shall impose the penalties of dismissal/Removal/Compulsory retirement. 

34. While putting up the case to revision authority, the authority competent thereto can suggest the specific penalty to be imposed. (say true or false)

35. If DRM functions as Disciplinary/Appellate authority, __________ shall be the appellate/revision authority. 

36. The disciplinary proceedings should be closed immediately on the death of the charged employee. (say true or false). 

37. ____________ inquiry is ordered, if necessary, to find out prima facie whether there is any case under DAR. 

38. Disciplinary Authority decides to conduct inquiry either by ______ or by __________ or by ___________. 

39. _________ authority fixes the date for inquiry and advises the charged employee. 

40. The inquiring authority may refuse the request of the delinquent employee for documents, if they are __________ to the case. 15 

41. The inquiring authority may refuse the request of the delinquent employee for documents, if they would be against __________ or ______________. 

42. The inquiring authority, where it is not itself the ___________, shall forward to the disciplinary authority the records of inquiry. 

43. Charges framed against a delinquent employee should not be _______ . They should be ______ and definite to convey exact nature of the alleged misconduct. 

44. The disciplinary authority cannot impose major penalty without conducting enquiry proceedings subject to the exceptions given under Rule ________ of the RS(D&A) Rules, 1968. 

45. If no presenting officer is appointed, __________ authority will perform the functions of the presenting officer in an inquiry. 

46. A railway servant on leave preparatory to retirement cannot be nominated as a defence counsel. (say true or false). 

47. The trade union official nominated as defence counsel should be a member of the recognized trade union for at least __________ (period) at the time of nomination. 

48. If no presenting officer is nominated, __________ will commence the proceedings by reading out the articles of charge. 

49. If no presenting officer is nominated, _________ will examine and re-examine the prosecution witnesses. 

50. What is the time limit for submission of written statement of defence by the delinquent railway servant?

51. If the documents cited in the charge sheet are not enclosed to it at the time of serving the same, it shall lead to procedural lapse. (say true or false).

52. What is the time limit allowed for the delinquent employee for completion of inspection of the documents? 

53. Show cause notice is necessary before imposing minor penalty after dropping the major penalty proceedings. (say true or false) 

54. Recognised trade union official can assist a gazetted railway servant to present his case before the inquiring authority. (say true or false). 

55. The trade union official who assists the delinquent employee in an inquiry should take nominal fees only. (say true or false) 

56. A legal practitioner can act as a defence assistant. (say true or false) 

57. If _________ authority is a legal practitioner, the defence assistant can also be a legal practitioner.

58. The ten days time allowed for submission of the written statement may be extended by the __________ authority, if he satisfies that there is enough justification to do so. 

59. In case the alleged charge is assault, ___________ filed in the police station can be one of the relevant documents to be attached to the charge sheet.

60. In case the alleged charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the listed documents. 61. If the charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses. 

62. A railway servant under suspension can be granted leave. (say true or false)

63. A railway servant under suspension can be given _______ sets of privilege passes in a calendar year at the discretion of the authority not lower than DRM. 16 

64. A railway servant under suspension can be given one set of privilege pass in a calendar year at the discretion of the authority not lower than __________. 

65. In case of removal/dismissal, the cost of privilege passes given to a railway servant under suspension should be recovered. (say true or false) 

66. Employees under suspension may be given not more than ________ sets of PTOs per year at the discretion of __________. 

67. The discretion to issue PTOs to employees under suspension may also be exercised by __________________. 

68. PF amount can be recovered from Subsistence allowance. (say true or false) 

69. Amount due to court attachment cannot be recovered for subsistence allowance. (say true or false). 

70. Appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within _________ days. 

71. Rule No. ________ of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with communication of orders to Railway servants. 

72. Schedule III of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with ____________. 

73. Special provisions to Group C and D are contained in Rule ________ of RS(D&A) Rules, 1968. 

74. The authority competent to reduce of increase the subsistence allowance after a period of three months of suspension is _______________. 

75. After a period of three months of suspension, the subsistence allowance may be increased or reduced by __________. 

76. Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 apply to casual labour. (say true or false) 

77. Inquiry is not required to be held in case of DAR proceedings for minor penalty. (say true or false) 

78. The disciplinary authority can never act as an inquiry officer. (say true or false) 

79. A typical charge sheet for major penalty necessarily contains _____ annexures. 

80. A trade union official can act as ___________ in a DAR Case. 

81. Trade Union member can act as Defence counsel in a DAR case against Gazetted Officers. (say true or false) 

82. Rule 13 of D&A Rules deals with common proceedings. (say true or false) 

83. No appeal shall lie against any order passed by an Inquiry Officer in the course of an inquiry under Rule 9 of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968. (say true or false) 

84. Rule 25 of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with special provisions for Group C & D staff. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive:

 1. To whom the Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules, 1968 are not applicable and to whom they are applicable? 

2. When a Railway servant may be placed under suspension? 

3. What is meant by deemed suspension? What are the provisions for deemed suspension?

4. What is meant by subsistence allowance? What deductions are permissible from subsistence allowance? 

5. How does the period of suspension is treated under different circumstances?

6. List out the minor penalties prescribed under D&A Rules, 1968. 17

7. List out the major penalties prescribed under D&A Rules, 1968. 

8. What does not amount to penalty within the meaning of Rule 6 of D&A Rules?

9. What is the procedure for imposition of minor penalty under D&A Rules, 1968? 

10. What documents shall be forwarded to inquiry Officer by the disciplinary authority to facilitate conduct of the inquiry? 

11. Under what circumstances, an inquiry is not required to impose a penalty on the delinquent employee as an exception to Rule 9? 

12. What are the orders against which no appeal lies under R.17 of D&A Rules?

13. Indicate five types of orders against which appeal lies under R.18 of D&A Rules. 

14. Write briefly about the special provisions available to non-gazetted staff under D&A Rules, 1968? 

15. Who are the revising authorities under the RS (D&A) Rules, 1968?

16. What are the provisions regarding submission of a petition to the President envisaged under Appendix II of IREC, Vol.I?

17. Distinguish between:

(i) Appellate authority & Disciplinary authority, 

(ii) Revision & Review

(iii) Suspension & Deemed Suspension, 

(iv) Minor Penalty & Major Penalty 

(v) Removal & Dismissal

(vi) Presenting Officer & Inquiry Officer 

18. Write Short notes on: 

(i) Defence counsel. 

(ii) Communication of orders 

(iii) Deemed suspension 

(iv) Common proceedings 

(v)Rule 14 of Railway Servants (Discipline & Appeal) Rules, 1968. 

(vi) preponderance of probability 

(vii) Principles of natural justice 

(viii) Review under RS (D&A) Rules. 

19. Draft statement of articles of charge framed against Shri Rao a Lab superintendent, Railway Hospital, Lallaguda, who was found pilfering medicines worth Rs. 200/- from the hospital at about 17.30 hrs., on 21.05.2005..

20. Draft statement of imputations of misconduct/misbehaviour in support of the articles of charge framed against Shri Rao, a lab superintendent, Railway Hospital, Lallaguda, who was found pilfering medicines worth Rs. 200/- from the hospital at about 17.30 Hrs., on 21.05.2005. 

21. Draft statement of imputations of misconduct/misbehaviour in support of the articles of charge framed against Shri Chari, a Sr. Clerk, CPO/O/SC who has misused II Class Privilege Pass No. S 235466 by allowing non-family members to travel under the guise of his wife and widowed mother. 

22. Draft statement of articles of charge framed against Shri Singh, a Peon, COM/O/SC that he has remained unauthorizedly absent from duty for 200 days from 01.07.1998 to 16.01.99 without prior sanction of leave or production of proper medical certificate from authorised medical attendant.

23. Indicate the reasonable opportunities available to defend oneself if one is taken up for Major Penalty under Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968? What further avenues available to him, if he is imposed with the penalty and what procedure shall be followed? 

18 X. Recognition of Trade Unions. Facilities to Office bearers of recognized unions/Associations. Dealing with Unrecognised Unions/Associations

(A) Objective: 

1. One card pass in favour of _________ office bearers shall be issued to each branch of a trade union. (any four) 

2. The card pass issued to the branches of trade unions are available over the jurisdiction of the branch and to the _________. (divisional headquarters) 

3. The authority competent to take a decision in regard to the request for allotment of land for construction of branch offices of a recognized union is ______ . (GM)

4. In case of transfer of office bearer to another office located at a distance in the same area at the same station, there is no need to give notice to the union before hand. (say true or false)

5. In case of transfer of office bearers from one section to another in the same office, there is no need to give notice to the union before hand. (say true or false)

6. The procedure laid down for transfer of office bearers need to be followed even in the case of employees to be transferred on SPE/Vigilance cases.(say true or false) 

7. In case employee is transferred on his own request, there is no need to follow usual procedure. (say true or false)

8. Prior permission of administration would be needed for use of Railway premises for holding meetings of recognized unions. (say true or false) 

9. The requests for use of railway premises for holding meeting of recognized unions should reach the administration ______ days before the meeting. (three) 

10. Political subjects can also be discussed at the meetings of recognized unions in the Railway premises for which permission is granted. (say true or false) 

11. Administration may insist on the copy of agenda of the meetings of recognized unions before granting permission. (say true or false) 

12. A railway telephone may be provided to the branch offices of the recognized unions also. (say true or false) 

13. General Secretary of a recognized union may be provided with a railway telephone at his residence only when the residential accommodation is within Railway premises. (say true or false) 

14. Divisional Secretaries of reecognised unions are not entitled to railway telephone at residence. (say true or false)

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the recognized unions on Indian Railways? What are the privileges extended to the office bearers of the recognized unions?

2. What are un-recognised unions? What is the Government’s policy regarding the un-recognised union? 

3. What is the Government’s policy regarding the grievances put forth by the SC/ST staff associations? What are the privileges extended to the SC/ST staff associations? 19 

4. What are the rules in connection with the transfer of a trade union official in different circumstances – 

(i) on administrative grounds, 

(ii) on Periodical Transfer, 

(iii) on request. 

5. What are the instructions regarding transfer of Trade Union officials?

6. What are the instructions regarding grant of permission/use of railway premises for union meetings?

7. What are the instructions regarding provision of telephone facility to the offices of recognized unions and their residential accommodation? 

8. What are the instructions regarding deputation of railway servant as full time paid union worker?

XI. Medical Attendance & Medical Examination:

 (A) Objective: 

1. Group A of the vision test is in the interest of ________ (public Safety)

2. Group A of the vision test is subdivided into _______ classes. (three) 

3. Foot Plate staff are medically tested for fitness in ____ class of Vision Test. (A/1)

4. Station Masters are medically tested for fitness in ____ class of Vision Test. (A/2) 

5. Inspectorial staff of Loco, Traffic and Signal Department are medically tested for fitness in ______ class of Vision Test. (A/3). 

6. Group B of the vision test is in the interest of _______ (employee himself and the fellow workers)

7. Group B of the vision is subdivided into ____ classes. (two) 

8. Give two examples of staff medically tested for fitness in B/1 class: Gangmen, Gang mates, Trains clerks, P Way Mistries, TXRs, RPF staff. 

9. TTEs are medically tested for fitness in _______ class. (B/2) 

10. Group C of the vision test is in the interest of ________ (administration)

11. Group C of the vision test is subdivided into ________ classes. (two) 

12. Welfare Inspectors are medically tested for fitness in ______ class. (C/1) 

13. Clerical staff are medically tested for fitness in ______ class. (C/2) 

14. Periodical Medical Examination of vision test in classes A/1, A/2 and A/3 is held after every ________ years upto the age of 45 years. (three)

15. Periodical Medical Examination of vision test for footplate staff of high speed trains should be held once in ______ years upto the age of 40 years. (two) 

16. Periodical Medical Examination of vision test in classes A/1, A/2 and A/3 is held once in ________ years after the age of 45 years. (a year) 

17. Periodical Medical Examination of vision test for footplate staff of high speed trains should be held once in ______ years after the age of 40 years. (a year) 

18. Periodical Medical Examination in B/1 and B/2 classes is held at the age of _____ years and again at the age of ______ years. (45 and 55)

19. No periodical medical examination is held for ____ and ___ classes.(C/1 and C/2) 20. The time spent in journey for PME is treated as _____ (duty)

21. The time taken by an employee to equip himself with spectacles etc., without which he is not considered fit for duty should be treated as _______. (leave due) 20

22. The amount payable for joining RELHS at the time of retirement is __________. 

23. Medical allowance is granted @ Rs. 100/- p.m. to Railway Pensioner/Family Pensioner residing beyond ______ away from Railway Hospitals. 

24. ____ qualifying service in the Railways is necessary for joining RELH Scheme.

25. Supply of diet is free to employees whose basic pay does not exceed Rs. ______.

 (B) Descriptive:

1. Explain the different medical classifications under which the non-gazetted staff are divided for appointment in Railway service? Give examples

.

2. What is RELHS? Who is eligible to join the scheme? What are the benefits under the scheme?

3. What are the provisions regarding supply of diet and the charges thereto?

4. What are the important provisions regarding reimbursement of expenses of -

(a) medical treatment and 

(b) cost of medicines 

XII. Audit and Accounts Narrative Report. Draft Paras and their disposal. 

(A) Objective: 

1. What does C&AG stand for? 

2. What does PDA stand for? 

3. What does PAC stand for?

4. In how many parts audit inspection reports are issued?

5. Who is the head of audit office in zonal railways? 

6. Who is the head of audit office in Railway Board?

 (B) Descriptive:

1. What is special letter? When is special letter issued?

2. Explain briefly on the role of audit?

3. When are Part-I and Part-II audit inspection reports and Notes issued? 

4. What is a draft para? When is it issued? How is it dealt with by Railway administration?

5. Why inspection of any unit by Accounts is essential? 

6. Describe in brief about the communication from Audit? How are they dealt with by Railway administration? 

XIII. Canons of Financial Propriety.

(A) Objective: 

1. Under the standards of financial propriety, the sanctioning authority must pay due regard to the principle that expenditure should prima facie be more or less than the occasion demands. (say true or false) 21

2. No authority should exercise its powers of sanctioning expenditure to pass an order which will directly or indirectly be to its advantage. (say true or false) 

3. Normally, public money should not be utilized for the benefit of a section of the community. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. Write about the cannons of financial propriety? 

2. Write short notes on Schedule of Powers.

XIV. Classification of demands for grants.

 (A) Objective:

1. The proposals of Government in respect of sums required to meet expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India are to be submitted in the form of __________. (Demands for Grants)

2. The demands shall be for _______ expenditure. (gross). 

3. The Demands No. 1,2 & 3 are in the nature of __________. (general on cost).

4. The Demands for Grants are to be presented in ______ parts. (two) 

5. Each part of the Demands for grants will have 3 sub-division called _______, ________ and _________. (sub-heads, detailed heads and primary units). 

6. Sub-heads of the Demands represent __________ (major functions/activities) 

7. Detailed heads of the Demands represent _________ (break up of the activity of classification)

 8. The expenditure under Repairs and Maintenance of Plant & Equipment of all Departments shall be charged to Demand No. ________. (7-Abstract E)

 9. Operating Expenses of Rolling Stock & Equipment shall be charged to ______. (Demand No, 8) 

10. Operating Expenses – Fuel shall be charged to ________. (Demand No. 10) 

11. Expenditure under Staff Welfare & Amenities shall be charged to _____. (Demand No. 11)

 12. Charged expenditure required the sanction of President. (say true or false)

 13. Voted expenditure requires approval of Parliament. (say true or false)

 14. Vote on Account represents Grants sanctioned by the Parliament in advance for the short period. (say true or false) 

15. Annexure-J indicates statement of mis-classification. (say true or false) 

16. Annexure-K indicates defects in budget. (say true or false)

17. Demand 3-13 is known as ordinary working expenses. (say true or false)

18. Repairs to staff quarters is booked to Demand No. 11(say true or false) 

19. Cost of training is booked to Demand No. 12 ( say true or false)

20. TA to PWI is booked to Demand No. 4 (say true or false)

21. Payment of DCRG is booked to Demand No. 13 (say true or false)

22. Salary of CPO is booked to Demand No. 3 (say true or false) 

23. Salary of GM is booked to Demand No. 3 ( say true or false) 22

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the demands for grants? Enumerate them.

2. Write short notes on - 

(a) Demands for grants

(b) primary units of expenditure 

XV. Man-Power Planning. 

(A) Objective:

1. Cadre means the strength of a service or a part of a service sanctioned as a separate unit. (say true or false) 

2. Gazetted post is a post to which appointment is made by ________________. 

3. Lien means the _______ of a Railway servant to hold a post to which he has been appointed on regular basis. 

4. A permanent post means a post carrying definite rate of pay sanctioned without ________________. 

5. A temporary post means a post carrying a definite rate of pay sanctioned for ________________. 

6. A Tenure post means ______________________________________. 

7. A supernumerary post is a shadow post to which no duties are attached. (say true or false).

8. A supernumerary post should be created for indefinite periods. (say true or false)

9. A supernumerary post, on vacation by the incumbent, can be filled by another officer in the order of seniority. (say true or false

10. Work charged posts are charged to specific sanctioned works (say true or false) 

11. An employee who has acquired lien on a post retains the lien on that post while under suspension. (say true or false) 

12. An employee who has acquired lien on a post retains the lien on that post while officiating in another post. (say true or false)

 (B) Descriptive: 

1. Define and explain: 

(i) Temporary Posts 

(ii) Tenure Posts 

(iii) Supernumerary Posts 

(iv) ex-cadre posts 

(v) work charged posts 

(vi) Selection Post 

(vii) Non-selection post 

(viii) Surplus staff bank. 

(ix) matching surrenders

 (x) Bench Marking 

(xi) Vacancy Bank Register. 

2. Distinguish between: 

(i) Permanent Posts & Temporary Posts 

(ii) Tenure Posts & Temporary Posts 

(iii) Tenure Posts & Ex-cadre Posts 

(iv) Selection Post & Non-selection post. 

(v) Ex-cadre posts & Supernumerary Posts. 

3. What is meant by lien? What are the provisions regarding retention, transfer and termination of lien of a Railway employee? 23 

4. Write a justification for creation of two temporary posts of Stenographers in scale Rs. 4000-6000 in Engineering Department duly indicating the matching surrender required for creation.

 5. What are the points to be checked before the proposal for creation of additional pots being processed for sanction of the competent authority? 

6. Man Power Planning needs urgent attention on Indian Railways – substantiate the statement. 

7. What is Manpower Planning? What are its important objectives? 

8. What is meant by surplus staff? What are the rules governing absorption and seniority of surplus staff in alternative posts? 

9. What are the provisions regarding absorption of medically decategorised staff in alternative posts? 

10. Under what circumstances the lien acquired by an employee shall be retained and shall not be retained? 

11. What are the instructions for speedy re-deployment of surplus staff? What are the instructions regarding fixing their seniority in the alternative posts? 

12. What are the instructions for training and redeployment of staff - 

(i) working in surplus posts, 

(ii) in surplus posts retiring shortly

 (iii) working in intermediate grades. 

XVI. Pay and allowances. 

(A) Objective: 

1. Waiting duty allowance is paid to ______________ staff. 

2. Waiting duty allowance is paid to the running staff due to detention at the station on account of __________ or ____________ after they have reported for duty.

3. Trip allowance is paid to the Running staff working on ______________ and ____________ trains for completion of trips. 

4. _________ % of the running allowance is reckoned as ay for passes/PTOs. 

5. _________ staff who are detained at any station other than their HQrs., due to an accident for a period exceeding 08 hours shall be paid accident allowance. 

6. ________ staff deputed to work temporarily at stations outside their HQrs., either on running duties or stationary duties shall be entitled to outstation allowance. 

7. Breach of Rest allowance is paid to ________ staff when the rest falls short of the prescribed hours of rest as per HOER. 

8. National Holiday Allowance is paid to staff drawing pay upto Rs. ______. 

9. NPA stands for __________ which is paid to ______________. 

10. Employees joining training institutions as faculty members are entitled to ______ allowance.

11. The staff who are paid nursing allowance are not entitled to NDA for the duty performed during nights. (say true or false) 

12. The classification of cities for the purpose of HRA are ___.(A1, A, B1, B2 and C) 

13. The classification of cities for the purpose of CCA are _____. (A1, A, B1 and B2) 

14. Hyderabad is classified as __________ for HRA and _________ for CCA. 

15. The quantum of rent paid is linked to payment of HRA (say true or false) 24

16. Dual charge allowance will be admissible only if the additional charge is held for a period exceeding _______ days. (45 days) 

17. For the purpose of dual charge allowance, the aggregate of the pay and additional pay shall not exceed Rs. _____________ p.m. (26,000/-) 

18. Transport allowance shall not be included for the purpose of computation of Overtime allowance. (say true or false) 

19. NPA is taken into account for determining the TA entitlements (say true or false) 

20. Leave availed by the officer looking after full duties of another post shall be taken into account for counting the period of dual charge allowance. (say true or false) 

21. Blind and orthopaedically handicapped employees are not entitled to transport allowance if they are availing I Class residential Card pass. (say true or false) 

22. A railway servant is not entitled to HRA if his spouse is allotted with Government accommodation at the same station. (say true or false)

23. NPA is treated as ay for the purpose of sanctioning advances. (say true or false)

24. The rate of washing allowance to Group D employee is __________ per month. 

25. Hyderabad city is classified as ________ for the purpose of HRA. 

26. Calcutta city is classified as ________ for the purpose of CA. 

27. The %age of DA payable as on 01.01.2006 is ______________. 

28. Rate of transport allowance payable to the employees drawing pay in scale RS. 6500-10500 at a class city is RS. __________-.

29. Breach of rest allowance is paid to running staff. (say true or false)

30. Night duty allowance is payable to all Group C employees. (say true or false)

 (B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the authorised deductions from the Pay bill of a Railway servant? 

2. What is consolidated TA? What are the rules for payment of consolidated TA? 

3. What are the occasions on which the employees are entitled to TA for journeys?

4. What are the rules regarding payment of conveyance charges for journeys (a) at or near HQrs., and (b) outside Hqrs.?

 5. What are the accompaniments to a wage bill? What documents are to be verified before claiming the salary of a temporary Railway servant? 

6. Write short notes on:

(i) Pay 

(ii) Personal Pay 

(iii) Presumptive Pay 

(iv) Overseas Pay 

(v) Special Pay 

(vi) Substantive Pay 

(vii) Officiating Pay.

(viii) Conveyance allowance to handicapped persons

(ix) Trip Allowance 

(x) Consolidated traveling allowance

(xi) Breach of rest allowance

(xii) Break down duty allowance 

(xiii) Outstation allowance

(xiv) Teaching allowance 

(xv) Special allowance to gatemen.

(xvi) Non-practicing allowance 

(xvii) Dual charge allowance. 

7. Distinguish between:

(i) Special Pay & Personal Pay 

(ii) Substantive Pay & Officiating Pay 

(iii) Presumptive Pay & Time scale Pay 25 

XVII. Leave Rules. 

1. What are the two categories of strikes? 

2. Conversion of one kind of leave into another shall be considered if received within _______ days. 

3. Leave ordinarily begins on the day on which _____________ is effected and ends on the day preceding that in which _________. 

4. CL shall not be combined with any other kind of leave since it is not __________. 

5. A railway servant on leave may not take any service in India without previous sanction of ______________. 

6. No railway servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period exceeding _________. 

7. Leave shall not be granted to a railway whom a competent authority has decided to ________, or _______ or ________ from service. 

8. Permission of the leave sanctioning authority is required to join duty canceling the leave sanctioned to him. (say true or false)

9. A railway servant who has taken leave on medical certificate may not return to duty until he has produced a _____________ from ________________. 

10. Willful absence from duty after expiry of leave renders a railway servant liable to disciplinary action. (say true or false)

 11. A railway servant other than one who is working in a railway school shall be entitled to _______ days leave on average pay in a calendar year. 

12. The leave account of every railway servant shall be credited with leave on average pay in advance in ______ instaments of ______ each on the first day of __________ and _______ every calendar year.

 13. The leave at the credit of a railway servant at the close of every half year shall be carried forward to next half year subject to the condition that the closing balance does not exceed ______ days. 14. 

Ordinarily the maximum leave on average pay that may be granted at a time to a railway servant shall be _______ days. 

15. In the year of appointment, LAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at the rate of ____ days for each completed calendar month of service. 

16. In the year of retirement/resignation of a railway employee, LAP shall be credited at the rate of _____ days for each completed calendar month of service. 

17. In case of removal/dismissal/death of a railway servant, credit of LAP shall be allowed at the rate of ______ days per completed calendar month upto the end of the month preceding the month in which one is removed/dismissed/deceased. 

18. During extra ordinary leave, the credit of LAP to be afforded to the leave account at the commencement of next half year shall be reduced by _______ of the period of such leave subject to a maximum of ______ days. 

19. During absence treated as dies non, the credit of LAP to be afforded to the leave account at the commencement of next half year shall be reduced by _______ of the period of such dies non subject to a maximum of ______ days. 

20. A permanent/temporary railway servant shall be entitled to leave on half average pay of _______ days in respect of each completed year of service. 26 

21. The amount of leave on half average pay that can be availed of in one spell shall be limited to ________ . 

22. The leave on half average pay shall be credited to the leave account of a railway servant on 1st of ______ and ________ at the rate of 10 days each in advance.

 23. In the year of appointment, LHAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at the rate of ____ days for each completed calendar month of service. 

24. In case of removal/dismissal/death of a railway servant, credit of LHAP shall be allowed at the rate of ______ days per completed calendar month upto the end of the month preceding the month in which one is removed/dismissed/deceased. 

25. In case of retirement/resignation, credit of LHAP shall be allowed at the rate of ______ days per completed month upto the date of retirement/resignation. 

26. While calculating the completed months of service, the month may be rounded off to the next higher if it exceeds more than 15 days (say true or false) 

27. In case the period of absence is treated as dies non, the credited to the LHAP account shall be reduced by ______ of the period of dies non subject to a maximum of 10 days. 

28. There is no limit to the number of days of commuted leave to be availed of during the entire service.

 29. Commuted leave may be granted at the request of the employee even when leave on average pay is due to him.(say true or false) 

30. Grant of Leave not due shall be limited to the leave on half average ay he is likely to earn thereafter. (say true or false) 

31. Leave not due during the entire service shall be limited to ______ days on medical certificate. 

32. Leave not due is debited against the ________ leave he is likely to earn subsequently.

 33. In case a railway servant who has been granted leave not due resigns from service or permitted to retire voluntarily, the retirement/resignation takes effect from ____________. 

34. If the retirement is ____________ on the railway employee, no leave salary for the period of leave not due availed shall be recovered from the employee. 

35. No temporary railway servant shall be granted extra ordinary leave in excess of three months without a medical certificate. (say true or false) 

36. A railway servant who proceeds on LAP is entitled to leave salary equal to the pay drawn before proceeding on leave on average pay. (say true or false)

37. The increment due on a day during the leave period shall not be drawn till the employee resumes duty. (say true or false) 

38. A railway servant on extraordinary leave is not entitled to any leave salary. (say true or false) 

39. The payment of cash equivalent of leave salary shall be limited to a maximum of ________ days of leave on average pay.

40. Entire leave on half average pay at the credit of railway servant who retire on superannuation, shall be allowed to be encashed subject to the condition that ________________________. 

41. A female Government servant with less than _______ children may be granted maternity leave. 27 

42. Maximum of the maternity leave admissible is _______ days. 

43. Maternity Leave can be combined with any other kind of leave (say true or false) 

44. Total period of Maternity Leave on account of miscarriage/abortion should be restricted to ______ days in entire career of a female servant. 

45. The maternity leave shall not be debited from the leave account (say true or false). 

46. A male Government servant with less than ______ children may be granted paternity leave. 

47. Maximum of the paternity leave is ______ days. 48. The paternity leave shall be availed of with in ______ months. 49. The paternity leave shall be availed during ___________. 

50. The paternity leave shall be availed during confinement of his wife i.e., ______ days before or upto _______ months from the date of delivery of the child. 

51. In case the paternity leave is not availed off with in 6 months it shall be treated a lapsed. (say true or false). 

52. Paternity leave is granted to a Casual Labour who has been granted ___________. 

53. _________ leave is granted to a Railway servant who is disabled by injury inflicted or caused in or in consequence of due performance of his official duty or in consequence of his official position. 

54. Special disability leave shall be combined with any other kind of leave (say true or false).

55. Maximum period of Special Disability Leave granted in consequence of any one disability shall be __________ . 

56. Leave salary payable during the first 120 days of Special Disability leave shall be equal to leave salary while on _____________. 

57. Leave salary payable beyond 120 days of Special Disability leave shall be equal to leave salary while on _____________. 

58. Hospital Leave shall be granted to a railway servant other than __________. 

59. Total period of Hospital Leave, including other kinds of leave combined with it, shall not exceed __________.

60. Study Leave shall be granted to Railway servants in accordance with the rules prescribed in __________ to Indian Railway Establishment Code, Vol.I. 

61. Study leave shall count as service for increment. (say true or false). 

62. Study leave shall count as service for pension. (say true or false) 

63. Study leave shall count as service for seniority. (say true or false)

64. Study leave shall count as service for promotion. (say true or false) 

65. Study Leave for study out side India shall be granted by ____________.

66. Apprentice Mechanics are entitled to leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding _______ days in any year of apprenticeship. (16 days).

67. Apprentice Mechanics are entitled to leave on half stipend on medical certificate for a period not exceeding _______ days in any year of apprenticeship. (20 days). 

68. Trade apprentices may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding ______ days in any year of apprenticeship. (12 days). 

69. Trade Apprentices may be granted leave on half stipend on medical certificate for a period not exceeding _______ days. (15 days). 28 

70. Pro. ASMs and Commercial Clerks who are trained for appointment and not put on the time scale during the period of training may be granted leave as applicable to ______________. (Apprentice Mechanics).

71. Workshop staff are allowed to take leave for periods of not less than ________ (half a day). 

72. Leave for half a day means authorised absence from duty for over _______ (period) before interval or the second period of any day on which the workshop remains open for both the periods. (half an hour)

73. The concession of granting half day leave to workshop staff is limited to ____ occasions in a year. (six)

74. Advance of leave salary is permissible if the railway servants proceeds on leave for a period not less than _______ days. (thirty) 

75. The advance of leave salary granted shall be adjusted in full from the __________ in respect of the leave availed of. (leave salary bill) 

76. In a year ______ days of CL is entitled to an employee appointed in an administrative office

77. Paternity leave came into effect from _________________. 

78. A Railway servant who resigns or quits service shall be entitled to cash equivalent in respect of LAP on the date of cessation of service to the extent of ________ of such leave at credit.

79. Extra Ordinary Leave on medical grounds does not qualify for grant of increments. (say true or false) 

80. Casual leave can be combined with joining time. (say true or false) 

81. Trade apprentices may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding 12 days in a calendar year. (say true or false)

 (B) Descriptive: 

1. To whom the Railway Servants (Liberalised Leave) Rules, 1949 shall apply?

 2. Write short notes on –

(i) Special Disability Leave,

(ii) Hospital Leave, 

(iii) Extraordinary Leave, 

(iv) Leave not due, 

(v) Study Leave, 

(vi) Maternity Leave, 

(vii). Leave Encashment 

(viii) Paternity Leave 

(ix). Commuted leave 

3. What are the formulae for calculation of cash payment for unutilized LAP and LHAP. What are the provisions for payment of leave encashment to the staff against whom disciplinary proceedings for major penalty are pending? 

4. (a) Write the formula for calculation of cash payment in lieu of unutilized Leave at Average Pay. 

(b) Calculate the cash equivalent of unutilized leave of 285 days left to the credit of an employee on retirement w.e.f. 31.12.2005. The details of pay and allowances drawn by him prior to retirement are given below: Pay: Rs. 10000/-; DP: 5000; DA:21%; HRA:15%; CCA: Rs. 300/-; Tansport allowance: Rs. 800/-

 5. (a) What are the provisions for granting leave encashment to an employee resigned from service? 29 

(b) Calculate the cash equivalent of unutilized leave of 280 days left to the credit of an employee on resignation from service w.e.f. 31.12.2005. The details of pay and allowances drawn by him prior to retirement are given below: Pay: Rs. 10000/-; DP: 5000; DA:21%; HRA:15%; CCA: Rs. 300/-; Tansport allowance: Rs. 800/-

6. Explain the procedure for crediting of leave to the account of an employee. What are the provisions regarding maintenance/ verification of Leave Accounts?

7. What are the reasons for missing leave accounts? Explain how to overcome. What is the laid down procedure for re-construction of a missing leave account? 

XVIII.Railway Pension Rules.

 (A) Objective: 

1. Under Pension Rules, Child means son or unmarried daughter of a railway servant under __________ years of age.(25)

2. Under Pension Rules, minor means a person who has not completed the age of _______ years. (18)

3. In case of a Railway servant who retires voluntarily after completing 20 years of qualifying service, the date of retirement shall be treated as _________. (nonworking day).

4. The day on which a railway servant retires shall be treated as his last working day. (say true or false) 

5. A railway servant shall not earn two pensions in the same service or post at the same time. (say true or false)

6. Re-employed pensioners are entitled to a separate pension or gratuity for the period of his re-employment. (say true or false)

7. Future good conduct shall be an implied condition of every grant of pension or its continuance. (say true or false) 

8. The ________ authority may, by order in writing, withhold or withdraw a pension, if the pensioner is convicted of a serious crime or is found guilty of grave misconduct. (appointing) 

9. Where the President orders recovery of pecuniary loss from pension, the recovery shall not ordinarily be made at a rate exceeding _______ of the pension admissible on the date of retirement. (1/3)

10. In respect of a retired railway servant against whom departmental or judicial proceeding are pending, the Accounts Officer shall authorise provisional pension not exceeding ____________. (the maximum pension)

11. No gratuity shall be paid to the railway servant until the conclusion of the departmental or judicial proceedings. (say true or false)

12. If the departmental proceedings are initiated for imposing any of the penalties specified in clauses ________________ of Rule 6 of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968, the payment of gratuity shall be authorised to be paid. (Clause i, ii, iii(a) and iv). 

13. Payment of provisional pension made shall be adjusted against __________ sanctioned. (final retirement benefits) 30

14. No recovery shall be made if the pension finally sanctioned is less than the provisional pension. (say true or false)

15. A Group ‘A’ officer shall obtain previous sanction of the Government to accept any commercial employment before the expiry of ______ years from the date of retirement. (two) 

16. All railway servants shall obtain previous sanction of the Government to accept any commercial employment after retirement. (say true or false) 

17. Where the Government does not communicate the refusal to grant permission to take up commercial employment to the applicant within _____ days of receipt of the application, the Government shall be deemed to have granted permission. (60) 

18. Period of service treated as dies-non shall be treated as service for pensionary benefits. (say true or false)

19. Period of unauthorized absence shall not be treated as service for pensionary benefits. (say true or false) 

20. Unpaid holidays granted to railway workshop staff shall be treated as qualifying service. (say true or false) 

21. Period of employment in a part-time capacity shall also constitute service for pensionary benefits. (say true or false) 

22. In case where railway accommodation is not vacated by a railway servant after superannuation or after cessation of service, full amount of retirement gratuity shall be withheld. (say true or false) 

23. A temporary railway servant who seeks voluntary retirement after completion of _______ years of service shall be eligible for retirement pension. (20) 

24. In the event of death in harness of a temporary railway servant, his family shall be eligible to family pension on the same scale as admissible to family of permanent railway servants. (say true or false)

25. Terminal gratuity shall be admissible in case where the railway servant concerned resigns his post. (say true or false)

26. Terminal gratuity shall not be admissible to a probationer discharged for failure to pass the prescribed test. (say true or false) 

27. Service rendered as substitute shall be counted for pensionary benefits if followed by absorption in a regular post without any break. (say true or false) 

28. The period of suspension shall qualify for pensionary benefits only if it had been treated as ________ . (duty or leave due as the case may be) 

29. Period spent on training immediately before appointment to service shal count as qualifying service. (say true or false)

30. The period of interruption in service between the date of removal and the date of reinstatement shall not count at qualifying service unless regularized as duty. (say true or false)

31. Dismissal of a railway servant from service shall not lead to forfeiture of his past service. (say true or false) 

32. Resignation of a railway servant from service shall lead to forfeiture of his past service. (say true or false) 

33. Any deficiency in the qualifying service of a railway servant shall not be condoned. (say true or false) 31

34. A pension granted or awarded under the Railway Services (Pension) Rules, 1993 shall not be less than _____________ per month. (Rs. 1250/- + DP=Rs. 1875/-)

35. A railway servant who is dismissed or removed from service shall forfeit his pension and gratuity. (say true or false)

36. The authority competent to dismiss or remove a railway servant from service sanction compassionate allowance in case deserving of special consideration. (say true or false) 

37. The compassionate allowance shall not exceed ______ of pension or gratuity or both. (2/3) 38. Compassionate allowance sanctioned shall not be less than _______ per month. (Rs. 1250/-) 

39. At any time after completion of _______ years of qualifying service, a railway servant may retire from service voluntarily. (20)

40. The qualifying service on the date of voluntary retirement of a railway servant shall be increased by the period not exceeding ______ years. (5) 

41. Added years of weightage to the qualifying service of a railway servant retired voluntarily does not in any case exceed ____ years. (33).

42. Weightage of 5 years shall also be admissible in the case of those railway servants who prematurely retired under Rules 1802 to 1804 of the Indian Railway Establishment Code, Vol.II. (say true or false) 

43. The amount of service gratuity shall be calculated at the rate of ______ month’s emoluments for every completed six-monthly period of service. (half) 

44. Maximum Pension is limited to ___________ per month. 

45. Minimum service to get the eligibility for pension is __________ years. (ten) 

46. In calculating the length of qualifying service fraction of a year equal to 3 months and above shall be treated as a completed one half year. (say true or false) 

47. The amount of pension finally determined shall be in whole rupees. (say true or false) 

48. Where the pension contains a fraction of a rupee it shall be rounded off to the next higher rupee. (say true or false) 

49. In the case of a railway servant retiring after completing qualifying service of not less than ________ years, the amount of pension shall be calculated at _______ % of average emoluments subject to a maximum of _______. (33, 50% and )

50. Maximum of Death-cum-retirement gratuity shall be ______. (3.5 lakhs)

51. If a railway servant dies while in service after putting in 20 years or more qualifying service, the death gratuity payable shall be ______ of emoluments for every completed six monthly period of qualifying service subject to a maximum of _____ times the emoluments provided that the amount of gratuity payable shall be limited to _________. (half, 33, 3.5 lakhs) 

52. In case no nomination exists and if there are one or more surviving members of the family, the gratuity shall be paid to all such members in _____ shares. (equal)

53. The minimum family pension payable shall be _______ % of the minimum of the scale. (30%). 

54. The Pension Scheme was introduced in Railway on ______________. 

55. The Family Pension Scheme was introduced in Railways on ____________. 

56. The maximum amount of Pension that can be commuted is __________. 32 

57. Pensioners would be entitled to have commuted portion of Pension restored to them on expiry of ________ years from the date of retirement. 

58. DCRG payable on retirement to a Railway servant who has put in 15 years of service is ________ times the emoluments. 

59. An employee who had 34 years of qualifying service dies while in service, his widow is entitled to the Death Gratuity for __________ months. 

60. Minimum Family Pension is Rs. ______________. 

61. The maximum amount of Deposit linked insurance admissible is Rs. _________.

62. The minimum service required to sanction of Pension is _________ years. 

63. Formula for calculating monthly pension of the employee on retirement is ______________________. 

64. The qualifying service required for pensionable staff to accept voluntary retirement is ___________ years. 

65. The minimum Pension is ________________. 

66. _____% of pension can be commuted on retirement. 

67. The relief is payable on ___________________ pension.

68. The family pension shall not be less than _________% of the minimum of the scale held by the employee at the time of retirement/death. 

69. The pension shall not be less than ________ % of the minimum of the scale held by the employee at the time of retirement. 

70. The deposit linked insurance scheme is linked to ________________ . 

71. Maximum amount of gratuity payable to a retired railway employees is _______.

72. DCRG payable depends on the rate of DA admissible (say true or false) 

73. Pay for the purpose of Gratuity is the last pay drawn plus DP (say true or false) 

74. Maximum amount of pension payable shall be Rs. _____________. 

75. Commuted value payable is linked to the age of the employee retiring from service (say true or false) 

76. Minimum qualifying service for payment of retirement gratuity is _____ years. 

77. Minimum qualifying service required for payment of pension is _______ years. 

78. Minimum qualifying service for accepting request for voluntary retirement is ________ years

79. Maximum qualifying service reckoned for fixing the pension is _________ years. 

80. One may choose to receive monthly pension by money order (say true or false) 

81. The account for drawl of pension can a joint account with wife. (say true or false) 

82. An employee removed from service is entitled for pension (say true or false) 

83. An employee dismissed or removed from service is entitled to draw compassionate allowance at the discretion of the ___________ authority. 

84. The pension becomes payable to the retired employee from the last working day of his service (say true or false) 

85. The entire gratuity can be withheld if the employee does not vacate the Railway quarter (say true or false) 

86. The widows and dependent children of deceased CPF retires who had retired from service prior to 01.01.1986 shall be granted ex-gratia w.e.f._______. (01.01.1986) 

87. The ex-gratia payment shall not be payable to more than one member of the family at the same time. (say true or false) 33 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What is qualifying service? What periods are not treated as service for pensionary benefits? 

2. What are the rules regarding counting of service in respect of -

(i) a substitute 

(ii) on probation 

(iii) under suspension 

(iv) Military service 

3. What are the provisions regarding emoluments and average emoluments for the purpose of pensionary benefits? 

4. Write short notes on - 

(i) DCRG

(ii) Commutation of Pension 

(iii) Family Pension 

(iv) Restoration of commuted portion of pension 

(v) Qualifying service 

(vi) Average emoluments 

(vii) compassionate allowance 

5. What are the rules for grant of Death cum retirement gratuity? 

6. Mr. A retired voluntarily w.e.f. 06.07.2000. He was drawing pay of Rs. 6,000/- from 01.08.98 till retirement except two spells i.e., from 12.02.2000 to 29.02.2000 and 16.03.2000 to 31.03.2000 during which he drew higher rate of pay of Rs. 6,125/-. He was on extra ordinary leave for 11 days from 01.02.2000. Calculate the average emoluments for the purpose of pension. 

7. Mr. A retired from service on attaining the age of superannuation on 30.06.2001 AN after putting in 33 years of service. He drew a pay of Rs. 9.500/- from 01.03.2000 and Rs. 9750/- from 01.03.2001 in scale Rs. 7500-250-12000. Calculate the pension and family pension admissible in his case. 8. The following are the details of emoluments drawn by Mr.A during his service:

(i) Pay: Rs. 10,750/-

(ii) Special Pay: Rs. 500/-

(iii) Personal Pay: Rs. 275/- 

(iv) Dearness Pay: Rs. 5,375/- 

(v) Dearness allowance: 24%. 

(vi) Qualifying service: 22 years 9 months 10 days. Calculate the Retirement Gratuity admissible in his case. Also calculate the death gratuity admissible to his family members in case of his death in harness. 

9. A central Govt. servant drawing pay of Rs. 9,000/- in scale Rs. 7500-250-12000 from 01.11.1999. He died on 31.10.2000 while in service. His date of birth is 6.6.42. Calculate the Family Pension admissible to his wife. 

10. Mr. X a Central Government employee drawing pay of Rs. 10,475/- in scale Rs. 8000-275-13000 from 01.11.1997 retired on superannuation on 31.03.1998. His date of birth is 01.04.1940. Calculate the pension admissible to him and the family pension admissible to his wife in case of death on 03.03.2001. 

11. What are the provisions regarding ex-gratia payment to 

(i) the families of CPF retirees and 

(ii) to the CPF retirees? 

12. Write about the salient features of the new pension scheme, 2004.

XIX. General Conditions of Service.

2. Absorption of Medically decategorised Staff.

(ii) Advances. 

(iii) Casual Labour and Substitutes 

(iv) Confidential Reports 

(v) Compassionate Ground Appointment 

(vi) Fixation of Pay & Drawl of increments. 

(vii) Group Insurance Scheme 

(viii) Joining Time Rules 

(ix) Pass Rules 

(x) Promotions 

(xi) Provident Fund 

(xii) Recruitment Rules 

(xiii) Reservation Rules 

(xiv) Selections 

(xv) Seniority Rules. 

(i) Absorption of medically decategorised staff: 

(A) Objective: 

1. The committee to assess suitability of medically decategorised staff for absorption in alternative posts should include a medical officer. (say true or false) 

2. Absorption of medically incapacitated staff in alternative posts in departments other than the one in which he was working at the time of incapacitation should be considered only if it is not possible to absorb him in other wings of the same department. (say true of false). 

3. Absorption of medically decategorised staff in alternative posts carrying lower grades is contravention of the Disabilities Act. (say true or false) 

4. No option is available to a medically decategorised employee to decline the alternative employment if offered in equal grade. (say true or false) 

5. A Railway servant who fails in a vision test by virtue of disability acquired during service becomes physically incapable of performing the duties of the post which he occupies shall be discharged from service duly arranging settlement dues. (say true or false) 

6. The medically decategorised/incapacitated staff should be shifted to some other post with the same pay scale and service benefits. (say true or false) 

7. Modification of the scheme of absorption of medically decategorised staff in alternative employment is necessitated due to the enactment of ________. [Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995]

 8. Consequent on enactment of the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995, the then existing 35 instructions on the subject of absorption of medically decategorised staff had ben amended vide Correction slip No. _______. (77) 

9. The rules in connection with absorption of medically decategorised staff in alternative posts are contained in paragraphs ________ to _______ of Chapter ______ of the Indian Railway Establishment Manual, Vol.I (1989 edition). (1301 to 1315 or Chapter XIII) 

10. Railway servants declared medically unfit are classified into ______ groups. (2) 

11. The two groups of staff declared medically unfit are (i) _______ and (ii) ______. [

(i) those who cannot be declared fit even in C medical category and

(ii) those disabled for further service in the post they are holding but fit in a lower medical category and eligible for retention in service in posts corresponding to the lower medical category] 

12. No officer has the authority to permit the Railway servant if he is declared medically unfit for the post held by him. (say true or false)

13. The Railway servants declared medically unfit cease to perform the duties of the posts held by them from _________. (the date they are medically declared unfit) 

14. If a medically decategorised Railway servant cannot be immediately absorbed in any suitable alternative post, he may be kept on a ______________ post of equal grade. (special supernumerary post) 

15. The special supernumerary post created to accommodate medically decategorised staff shall stand abolished as soon as ___. (the alternative employment is located) 

16. While absorbing medically decategorised staff in alternative posts, it shall be ensured that ______. (interests of other staff in service are not adversely affected)

17. The committee to adjudge the suitability of the medically decategorised staff for absorption in alternative post shall consist of ____________. (two or three officers) 

18. If there is no immediate prospect of employment in the unit/division concerned, the details of the Railway servant shall be circulated to ______ where suitable employment is likely to be found. (all other officers/establishments) 

19. To determine the scale of pay for absorption of medically decategorised running staff in alternative posts, ____________ shall be added to the maximum and minimum of the scale of pay of running staff. (an amount equal to such %age of pay in lieu of running allowance) 

20. The staff who get their cases recommended for a change of category on medical grounds are treated as transferred on own request. (say true or false)

 21. The medically decategorised employee who is kept on special supernumerary post has a right to decline the alternative employment of equal grade to which he is posted. (say true or false) 

22. Absorption of medically decategorised staff in a grade lower than the one held by them at the time of decategorisation is in contravention of the provision of Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995. (say true or false) 

24. The requests of medically decategorised employees with less than 20 years of service to quit Railways may be accepted and their cases settled under Rule _______ of Manual of Pension Rules. [R. 55 read with R.69(2)(b)]

 25. Employees who are offered alternative posts in the same grade but are unable to perform duties attached to the posts owing to physical condition may be referred 36 for ____________ and _________ may be given. (review, job counseling for adaptation to new jobs) 

26. Absorption of medically decategorised staff in other departments be considered only when it is not possible to absorb them in ___________ of the same department. (other wings) 

27. The committee to assess suitability of the medically decategorised staff for absorption in alternative posts should include a medical officer. (say true or false)

28. Employees declared medically disabled/decategorised on or after _________ upto _________ and absorbed in lower grades than the one held by them on regular basis may be reviewed and decided at the level of GM. (07.02.96, 28.4.99)

29. Drivers who are medically decategorised upto Class A-3 are eligible to be considered for the post of ____________. (Loco Inspectors) 

30. The surplus staff who are superannuating within the next three years who cannot be redeployed at the same station for any reason shall be placed against __________ posts forthwith. (special supernumerary)

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the instructions for absorption of medically decategorised staff in alternative posts and fixing their seniority in the alternative posts?

2. Explain the various steps to be taken for finding alternative employment to absorb the medically disabled staff.

(ii) Advances: 

(A) Objective:

1. ______, ________ and __________ are called advances for conveyance. 

2. Rules regarding Conveyance advances are contained in _______ chapter of the Indian Railway Establishment Manual. 

3. Cycle advance is admissible to non-gazetted employees drawing Pay plus DP less than ____________. 

4. The amount of cycle advance payable shall be ___ or ______ whichever is less.

5. The maximum instalments permissible for recovery of cycle advance are ______. 

6. Cycle advance at II time is permissible after _________ years. 

7. Scooter/Motor Cycle advance is admissible to Railway employees drawing Pay plus DP of Rs. ____________ or __________. 

8. The amount of Scooter/Motor cycle advance payable shall be ________ or _________ or __________whichever is less on the first occasion. 

9. Maximum instalments permissible for recovery of Scooter/Motor cycle advance are ________. 

10. Second or subsequent Scooter/Motor Cycle advance is restricted to _________ or __________ or _________ whichever is less. 

11. Second/subsequent Scooter/Motor Cycle advance is not permissible unless _____. 

12. The Railway servant who has availed the advance of Scooter/Motor Cycle shall produce the registration certificate of vehicle on his own name with __________. 37 

13. Rate of interest collected on Scooter/motor Cycle is ___________. 

14. Motor Car advance is admissible to employees drawing Pay plus DP of Rs. ____. 

15. The amount of Motor Car advance payable shall be ________ or _________ whichever is less on the first occasion. 

16. Maximum instalments permissible for recovery of Motor Car advance are _____. 

17. Second or subsequent Motor car advance is restricted to _________ or __________ or _________ whichever is less.

 18. Second or subsequent Motor car advance is permissible only after ______ years from the date of drawl of last advance. 

19. Vehicle should be purchased within ________ from the date of drawl of advance. 

20. Rate of interested collected on Motor Car advance is ___________.

21. Table fan advance is admissible to __________ staff only. 

22. The table fan advance admissible is _________ or _________ whichever is least. 

23. The maximum instalments permissible for recovery of fan advance is ___.

24. There is no provision of fan advance for second time (say true or false)

25. Warm Clothing advance is admissible to Group C & D staff posted to __ stations. 

26. The staff posted to hill stations either on first appointment or on transfer for a period of not less than one year is entitled to ___________ advance. 

27. The amount of warm clothing advance is Rs. __________. 

28. The warm clothing advance is payable once in __________ years. 

29. The warm clothing advance is recoverable in _________ instalments. 

30. PC advance is admissible to staff drawing pay of Rs. __________ .

31. The maximum amount of PC advance admissible on first occasion is _________ or __________ whichever is less. 

32. The amount of PC advance admissible on second or subsequent occasion is __________ or ____________ which ever is less.

 33. Maximum number of instalments permissible for recovery of PC advance is ___. 

34. Advance on transfer is admissible if the transfer is in _______ interest. 

35. The interest recovered on transfer advance is __________. 

36. The amount of transfer advance payable is _________. 

37. The pay for the purpose of transfer advance is ____________. 

38. The transfer advance is recoverable in _________________. 

39. Transfer advance can be drawn at the old station or new station (say true or false) 

40. The transfer advance is not admissible in mutual transfers (say true or false). 

41. The advance of TA payable shall be _______________. 

42. The advance of TA is adjusted through _____________. 

43. The flood advance is recoverable in __________ instalments. 

44. Flood advance is permissible on certification about floods by _______ authorities. 

45. Festival advance is payable to staff drawing pay of RS. __________. 

46. The amount of festival advance payable is Rs. ___________. 

47. The festival advance is recovered in ________ instalments. 

48. The interest recovered on festival advance is __________. 

49. Festival advance is paid once in a _____________. 

50. Temporary employees have to produce _____________ from permanent railway employees for drawl of Festival advance. 38 

51. A temporary Railway servant is entitled for House Building advance after having put in __________ years of continuous service. 

52. Motor Car advance to SAG officers can be sanctioned by _______________. 

53. The amount of funeral advance payable to the families of Railway servants is ________ or ____________ whichever is less. 

54. The funeral advance is recoverable in _________ instalment/s from __________. 55. Fan advance can be sanctioned to a Jr. Clerk. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are interest bearing advances? Explain the conditions of eligibility, maximum amount admissible and recovery of any four such types of advances.

2. What are interest free advances? Explain the conditions of eligibility, maximum amount admissible and recovery of any four such types of advances. 

3. A Railway servant was sanctioned an advance of Rs. 70,000/- which was paid in two equal instalments on 26th June, 1999 and 29 th July, 1998. The advance was to be repaid in 100 instalments of Rs. 700/- each. The rate of interest chargeable on the advance is 9% p.a. Recovery of the principle amount commenced from the pay of October, 1998. Calculate the amount payable by the Railway servant if he wishes to repay the advance with interest on29th April, 2000. 

4. Calculate the interest payable on an amount of Rs. 3,80,000/- sanctioned to Mr. A towards House Building Advance @ 12% p.a. If the amount is drawn in two instalments each of Rs. 1,90,000/- on 31.3.2001 and on 01.08.2001 and a recovery of Rs. 3,600/- p.m., commenced from November, 2001 and cleared in 105 equal instalments and the balance in 106th instalment. What shall be the interest payable, if Mr. A adopted small family norms and is very prompt in repayment of the advance, insuring the house and submitting the necessary documents/declarations in time.

5. Mr. X was sanctioned Rs. 30,000/- towards Scooter advance in March, 2002 opted for recovery of the advance in 60 equal monthly instalments. The scooter was purchased in April, 2002 and recovery commenced in April, 2002. During 2003, Mr. X was on EOL and the recovery could not be effected for the period from January, 2003 to October, 2003 and there after the recovery continued as usual till the entire amount of advance is repaid. If the interest rate applicable is 11% p.a., calculate the interest payable. 

(iii) Appointment on compassionate grounds: 

(A) Objective: 

1. Where an employee dies in harness leaving behind only the widow, i.e., without any children, appointment of a near relative is permissible. (say true or false) 

2. Wards of Gazetted officers are not entitled for compassionate ground appointments. (say true or false) 

3. Wards of Group D staff are eligible for CG appointment in Group D only. (say true or false) 39

4. CG appointment is not permissible in case a casual labour with temporary status dies while in service. (say true or false) 

5. The time limit to give appointment in priority one cases is three months. (say true or false)

6. Divisional Railway Managers are competent to consider the relaxation of minimum age limit in deserving cases of compassionate appointments. (say true or false) 

7. JA Grade officers holding independent charge of workshops are competent to give CG appointments in Group D. (say true or false)

8. Upper age relaxation in the case of Group D on compassionate grounds is with in the powers of CPO only. (say true or false) 

9. Widows upto the age of 35 years are only to be considered for compassionate appointments. (say true or false) 

10. Cases of CG appointments of RPF staff are to be considered in RPF department only. (say true or false) 

11. The minimum qualification for a Group C post is SSC/Matriculation with 50% marks. (say true or false) 

12. CG appointment to dependents of an employee died as bachelor is effective from __________. 

13. ___________ is competent to terminate the service of a CG appointee without following D&A Rules. 

14. ___________ is competent to give third and final change to a widow to appear for a Group C suitability test. 

15. DRM is competent to give _______ chances to appear for Group C screening on merits to the ward of a deceased employee.

16. CG appointee to a post of technician/Gr.III with SSC should undergo _______ months of training. 

17. ______ Class pass is given to wards of deceased employee when called for screening. 

18. ___________ is competent to consider the requests received after two years of the first son/first daughter attained the age of majority. 

19. Who is competent to relax the condition of minimum educational qualification? 

20. Is General Manager competent to appointment in posts carrying pay scale of Rs. 5500-9000?

 21. How many officers shall be there in screening committee for CG appointments? 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. Who are eligible to be considered for appointment on compassionate grounds? How are the priority of the cases decided?

2. What is the role of Personnel Inspector in processing cases for CG appointment?

3. Explain the circumstances under which the Compassionate Appointments are considered and prioritise these circumstances together with time limit with in which the appointments are given? 40 

4. With the issuance of Railway Board’s letter No. E(NG)I/96/RE/3/9(12) of 29.04.1999, the existing procedure of compassionate ground appointments has undergone changes? Explain these changes commencing from 29.04.99. 

5. An employee due to retire in next 20 months was found missing. His wife has filed a report with police & FIR was also registered. Her request for appointment to herself is received in the office. What action will you take on this request? 

6. The minimum educational qualifications for a Group D post is a pass in 8th Class. But the candidate for whom the appointment is sought has no minimum educational qualification on the date of event i.e., on 08.10.1999 but he acquired the same at a later date i.e., within a period of five years from the date of incident. Put up a note keeping the Board’s instructions circulated vide SC No. 62/2004 justifying the case for Railway Board’s consideration.

7. There are numerous complaints from the eligible family members of the deceased employees that undue delays are taking place in processing their requests for CG appointment. What steps do you suggest to eliminate the delay and improve the image of Personnel Branch in the minds of the wards? 

8. Explain the procedure followed to adjudge the suitability of a candidates for appointment on compassionate grounds in a Group C post?

9. Write short notes on ‘Appointment on compassionate Grounds’.

 (iv) Fixation of Pay & Drawl of increments:

(A) Objective:

1. Allowance in lieu of Kilometerage is admissible to the medically decategorised drivers drafted to perform the duties of Power Controllers/Crew Controllers. (say true or false)

2. The benefit of addition in basic pay for computation of retirement benefits admissible to running staff is admissible to the medically decategorised drivers drafted to work as Power Controllers/Crew Controllers. (say true or false)

3. Grant of officiating pay to the incumbents of the vacancies of short duration is admissible subject to the condition that the vacancy lasts over _______ days and is caused by factors that could not be foreseen. (30) 

4. Option for fixation of pay under R.1313, IREC., Vol.II is not admissible to Gp. B officers on promotion to Gp. A Sr. Scale on ad hoc basis. (say true or false)

5. Railway servants who were on sick leave on 01.01.1996 and whose services had been terminated due to medical invalidation, without resuming their duty are to be allowed the benefits of revised scales of pay from ___________. (1.1.96) 

6. The pay/stipend of Railway servants selected against GDCE and undergoing training may be regulated under the provisions of Rule __________ of IREC, Vol.II. (R. 1315)

7. The date of effect of the instructions to allow the minimum fixation benefit of Rs. 100/- on promotion is __________. (01.01.1996) 

8. The special pay of Rs. 70/- granted to Sr. Clerks on or after 01.01.1996 would not be counted for fixation of pay in the scale of Rs. 5000-8000. (say true or false) 41

9. The pay of an employee holding a post substantively and seeking transfer to another post in lower grade will be protected subject to the condition that _______________________. (maximum of pay of lower post is not exceeded). 

10. Fixation of pay in cases of appointment from one ex-cadre pot to another ex-cadre post should be made with reference to pay in the ________ post only. (cadre) 

11. In the cases where two scales have been merged to a single grade in V PC, the promotions taken place from a lower to a higher scale during the period from 01.01.96 to 08.10.97 stand nullified. (say true or false).

12. Whenever a promotion order is issued to any railway employee a clause should be incorporated in the promotion order regarding availability of option for fixation of pay. (say true or false) 

13. Group B officers who acquired the higher qualifications on or after __________ are governed by one time lumpsum incentive scheme. (05.07.95)` 

14. The minimum fixation benefit of ______________ on promotion is allowed w.e.f. 01.01.1996. (Rs. 100/-).

15. Advance increments granted to sports persons are to be treated as pay for ________ purposes. (all).

16. Advance increments granted to sports persons on medal winning performance would take effect from _______________. (the first day of the following month of the concluding day of the championship). 

17. Increments granted to stenos for acquiring higher speed in shorthand on or after 1.1.96 in revised scales shall be termed as __________. (special allowance).

18. The increments granted to stenographers for acquiring higher speed in shorthand on or after 1.1.96 in the revised scales will not count as pay for allowances. (say true or false)

19. The increments granted to stenographers for acquiring higher speed in shorthand on or after 1.1.96 in the revised scales will count as emoluments for pension/ gratuity. (say true or false)

20. The advance increments granted to stenographers for acquiring higher speed in shorthand shall be termed as special allowance w.e.f. ____________. (the date on which the employee draws pay in the revised scale of pay). 

21. The services of a substitute for allowing annual increment shall be counted from the date of _______________. (attaining temporary status).

31. The nursing staff possessing b.Sc., degree and enjoying the benefit of two advance increments in IV PC Scales as on 1.1.96 shall be fixed in the revised scale excluding the quantum of tw advance increments. (say true or false). 

32. The two advance increments enjoyed by nursing staff possessing B.Sc., degree are allowed in V PC as additional increments at the revised rates. (say true or false) 

33. The additional increments allowed at the revised rates in V PC to nursing staff possessing B.Sc., degree are to be treated as pay for the purposes of allowances. (say true or false). 

34. Stagnation increment is admissible only to an employee stagnating at the maximum of the scale for _________ years. (two 

35. Granting of stagnation increment will be restricted to posts, maximum of which does not exceed __________. (Rs. 22,400/-). 42 

36. Stagnation increment is treated as Personal Pay and will count for DA, HRA and CCA. (say true or false)

37. Stagnation increment will not count as emoluments for pensionary benefits. (say true or false) 

38. Stagnation increment is not taken into account for fixation of pay on promotion. (say true or false) 

39. The stagnation increment shall be equal to ________. (increment last drawn).

40. Maximum __________ increments can be granted on stagnation account. (three). 

41. For granting stagnation increment, the period of two years would count from ___________________ . (the date one reached the maximum of the scale). 

42. Annual increment accrues automatically on the due date unless withheld y a specific order. (say true or false) 

43. Increment is granted from _________ in which it falls. (first of the month). 

44. When the increment is withheld with cumulative effect, the postponement will have effect of postponing future increment also. (say true or false) 

45. EOL on medical grounds shall be considered as qualifying service for granting increment. (say true or false) 46. Period of suspension shall be qualifying for increments if _____________ is allowed for such period. (full pay) 

47. Unpaid holidays enjoyed by workshop staff wil not count for increment unless _______________________. (converted in to LAP/LHAP at employee’s request)

48. ___________ increments will be granted by General Manager for gold medal winning performance during the National Championships. 

49. With effect from ________ training period shall be counted for increments. 

50. Family planning allowance granted under small family norms shall be equal to the _____________ in the revised scales of pay. 

51. In technical departments for acquiring higher qualifications of AMIE/BE lumpsum incentive of ____________ will be paid to the employee. 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the principles governing fixation of pay - 

(a) on first appointment 

(b) on transfer from higher to lower post 

(c) on promotion to a post carrying higher responsibilities 

(d) on promotion to an ex-cadre post 

(e) on repatriation from ex-cadre post. 

2. Write short notes on - 

(a) lumpsum incentive scheme for acquiring higher qualifications 

(b) Stagnation increments (c) Advance increment 

(d) Next Below Rule (e) Stepping up of pay

(f) Rules for fixation of pay at a higher stage than minimum to sports persons.

3. Explain about the rules governing lumpsum incentive scheme for acquiring higher qualifications in different departments.

4. What is meant by dual charge allowance? What are the rules governing grant of dual charge allowance? What are the principles for reckoning the same for fixation on promotion and settlement? 43 

5. What is meant by non-practising allowance? What are the principles for reckoning the same for different purposes like fixation on promotion, composite transfer grant and settlement?

6. Fix the pay of a Driver on pay of Rs. 6050/- w.e.f. 01.01.2005 in scale of Rs. 5000-150-8000 on his posting as Fuel Inspector in scale Rs. 5500-175-9000 w.e.f. 10.08.2005 involving higher responsibilities 

(a) from the date of promotion

(b) from the date of next annual increment. 

7. Mr. George is a permanent Sr. Clerk, drawing pay of Rs. 6250/- w.e.f. 28.02.2003 in scale Rs. 4500-7000 is promoted to an ex-cadre post. Fix his pay - 

(a) on promotion to an ex-cadre post on 01.03.2003 in scale Rs. 5000-8000. 

(b) on promotion to another ex-cadre post on 02.03.2005 in scale Rs.5500-9000.

 8. Mr. Cruz on pay of Rs. 6200/- in scale Rs. 4500-7000 due for promotion on 05.08.2004 to 5000-8000 two months before accrual of his annual increment. What shall be your advise to him for exercising option for fixation of pay on promotion when he has another 15 years of service to retire. 

9. Mr. A while drawing pay of Rs. 6050/- w.e.f. 01.03.2005 in scale Rs. 5000-150- 8000 was imposed a penalty of with holding of his annual increment for a period of 02 years (NR) vide Memorandum dated 02.03.2005.

(a) Show how his pay is regulated during the period of punishment and on restoration?

(b) In case, he became eligible for promotion to the scale of Rs. 5500-9000 on 10.08.2005, what action shall be taken for his promotion and what shall be his pay during the period of penalty and on restoration? 10. Mr. B while drawing pay of Rs. 6200/- w.e.f. 01.06.2003 in scale Rs. 5000-150- 8000 was imposed a penalty of with holding of his annual increment for a period of 02 years with cumulative effect vide memorandum dated 10.09.2003 and he became eligible for promotion to the scale of Rs. 5500-175-9000 w.e.f. 01.10.2003. 

(a) How his pay shall be regulated during the penalty and on restoration? 

(b) What action shall be taken regarding his promotion and how his pay shall be regulated on promotion? 

11. The details of service rendered by Mr. A whose date of increment is 1.4.2003 are as follows:

a. EOL (not counting for increment) from 29.07.2003 to 31.07.2003,

b. Suspension treated as his own leave from 07.10.2003 to 02.01.2004. 

c. EOL on medical grounds from 15.01.1974 to 05.02.2004. What shall be the date of his next increment? 

12. Mr. Ram working as a Keyman drawing pay of Rs. 3875/- w.e.f. 01.03.2005 in scale Rs. 2750-70-3800-75-4400 was promoted as Gangmate in scale Rs. 3050- 75-3950-80-4590 w.e.f. 01.12.2005. Suggest the employee whether he will be benefited on exercising option for fixation of pay after the next annual increment. Show the calculations. 

13. What do you understand by postponement of increment? What are the provisions of R. 1320 (FR 26) of IREC, Vol.II for reckoning service for increments? 

 (v) Group Insurance Scheme: 

(A) Objective: 

1. The new Group Insurance scheme for regular employees of Central Government came into force w.e.f. __________. (01.01.1982)

2. The new Central Government Employees Group Insurance scheme has become compulsory for the employees who enter into service already in service as on _________ and optional to those in service as on _________. (01.11.80) 

3. The rates of subscription under the new Group Insurance scheme are Rs. ____, Rs. ______, Rs. ______ and Rs. _______ in respect of Group D, Group C, Group B and Group A staff respectively.

4. The subscription for Group Insurance scheme will be apportioned @ _____ % is Insurance Fund and _____ % is Savings Fund. (30%, 70%).

5. Under the Group Insurance scheme, the apportionment of savings/insurance fund @ 30% and 70% respectively came into force w.e.f. ____________. (01.01.1988) 

6. The insurance coverage under the Group Insurance scheme to the families of Group D, Group C, Group B and Group A staff is Rs. ______, Rs. ________, Rs. _________ and Rs. _________ respectively. 

7. The Group Insurance scheme is based on mortality rate of ______ per thousand per annum. (3.60) 

8. In case of regular promotion to a higher group, the subscription under Group Insurance scheme shall be increased from _________. (first January of next year).

9. In case an employee was on EOL, during which no subscription to the Group Insurance could be recovered, the same shall be recovered in arrears with interest. (say true or false) 

10. In the absence of a valid nomination under the Group Insurance scheme, the nomination made under ____________ may be accepted. (PF Rules) 

11. In case of no nomination under the scheme of Group Insurance/PF Rules, the insurance money shall be payable in equal shares to __________________. (wife/wives, minor sons and unmarried daughters).

12. A subscriber having a family can nominate anybody to receive the insurance money under Group Insurance scheme. (say true or false) 

13. In case an employee’s whereabouts are not known, the accumulation from the savings fund becomes payable under Group Insurance scheme to the nominee/heirs after __________ period. (one year)

14. It is legally permissible to adjust the Government dues against the payments due to the employees/nominees under the Group Insurance scheme. (say true or false)

15. Subscriptions under the Group Insurance scheme shall not be recovered during the last three months of service. (say true or false)

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the provisions regarding exercising of nomination by a subscriber under Group Insurance Scheme? What are the provisions for payment of amounts under the scheme in case there is no valid nomination? 45 

2. Explain about the scope, membership, monthly subscription, amount of insurance coverage and the insurance/savings fund of the Group Insurance scheme, 1980 as amended from time to time? 

(vi) Joining Time Rules: 

(A) Objective: 

1. Joining Time Rules are contained in ___________. (Chapter 11 of IREC, Vol.I) 

2. Joining Time shall be granted to a Railway servant on transfer in public interest to enable him to join the new post either _________ or __________. (at the same station or a new station)

3. In the case of temporary transfer not exceeding 180 days the joining time allowed is _____ days. (nil)

4. The joining time shall commence from the date of _____________ if the charge is made over on the forenoon. (relinquishment of charge of the old post)

5. The joining time shall commence from the following date if the charge is made over in the ____________. (afternoon) 

6. Not more than one day’s joining time shall be allowed to a Railway servant to join a new post within _________ or __________. (the same station or which does not involve change of residence from one station to another).

7. For the purpose of the term same station will be interpreted to mean the area falling within the jurisdiction of the _____ or _____.(municipality or corporation)

8. If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is 1,000 Kms., or less, the joining time admissible is __________ days. (10 days).

9. If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is more than 1,000 Kms., the joining time admissible is __________ days. (12 days).

10. If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is more than 2,000 Kms., the joining time admissible is __________ days. (15 days). 

11. If the distance between the old headquarters and new headquarters is more than 2,000 Kms., and the travel is permitted by air, the joining time admissible is __________ days. (12 days). 

12. Distance means the weighted mileage for which fare is charged by the Railways in certain ghat/hill sections. (say true or false) 

13. Extension of Joining time beyond the limits can be granted upto a maximum limit of _______ days. (30 days).

14. Extension of Joining time beyond the limits can be granted upto a maximum limit of 30 days by _____________. (Head of the Departments) 

15. Extension of Joining time beyond the limits can be granted upto a maximum limit of 30 days by _____________ on the divisions. (Divisional Railway Manager) 

16. Extension of Joining time beyond 30 days can be granted by ___________. (Ministry of Railways)

17. Special Casual Leave can be granted in lieu of joining time . (say true or false). 

18. The credit of joining time to the leave account will be subject to the usual restriction on accumulation of _______________ in the leave account. (LAP) 

19. Joining time cannot be combined with vacation. (say true or false) 46

20. Joining time can be combined with any other kind of leave except ______. (CL)

21. Joining time cannot be combined with Casual leave. (say true or false)

22. A railway servant on joining time shall be regarded as on _______ (leave/duty/on line/joining) 

23. Joining time pay is equal to the pay which was drawn before ______________ in the old post. (relinquishment of charge)

24. During joining time, a railway servant shall be entitled to CCA and HRA at the rates applicable to the ________. (old station/new station) 

25. The quantum of joining time admissible for transfer involving less than 1000 Kms is __________. 

26. Joining time is admissible to an employee on temporary transfer (say true or false) 

27. Sanction of special casual leave in lieu of Joining Time is not admissible. (say true or false) 

28. Maternity Leave is admissible in case of still born children. (say true or false)

29. Paternity Leave is admissible t temporary status casual labour. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. Write short note on ‘Joining Time’. 

2. What are the provisions regarding grant of joining time, limits of admissibility, commencement and extension of joining time.

 (vii) Promotions: 

(A) Objective: 

1. All vacancies in Gp. B are filled by promotion of Group C employees on the basis of ________ and _______ wherever the scheme is in force. (selection and LDCE) 

2. Where the scheme of LDCE is in force selection is held to fill up ______% of vacancies and LDCE is held to fill up _____% of vacancies. (70 and 30) 

3. Selection for appointment to Group B should be held once in________ years (2) 

4. Selection committee for selection to the Group B posts shall be constituted with the orders of _________. ( General Manager) 

5. The selection committee for selection the Group B posts shall consists of ____ HODs including __________ and the __________. (3 HODs, CPO and the HOD of the department concerned) 

6. If none of the committee members for selection to Group B posts belongs to SC/ST communities, another officer belonging to SC/ST community not below the rank of ___________ shall be nominated. (JA Grade) 

7. In case of selection to a Group B post the assessment of vacancies shall for ______ years. (02)

8. ______ % of the cadre including construction reserve shall be added while assessing vacancies for selection to a Group B post. (20%) 

9. In Group B selections, if it is felt that inclusion of 20% of cadre would lead to an inflation in the size of the panel, ________ may restrict the assessment. (GM) 47

10. Post based rosters shall be followed for implementation of reservation policy in selections to Group B posts. (say true or false)

11. Group C employees working in grade the minimum of which is Rs. _________ in the revised scale and in the higher Group C grades on a regular basis who have rendered not less than ______ years of non-fortuitous service are eligible to appeal for the selection.

12. Notwithstanding the position that the seniors do not fulfil the requisite minimum service conditions, they are eligible to appear for selection to a Group B post if _________ . ( a junior is considered by virtue of satisfying the relevant condition)

13. In a Group B selection for one vacancy, the zone of consideration shall be _____. (05 employees) 

14. In a Group B selection for two vacancies, the zone of consideration shall be ____. (08 employees) 

15. In a Group B selection for three vacancies, the zone of consideration shall be ___. 

16. The formula for deciding the zone of consideration for filling up 04 or more Group B vacancies by selection shall be ________. (3xV – where V is the number of vacancies)

17. Where employees of different streams are eligible to appear for Gp. B selections, their __________ seniority list should be drawn and circulated before selection. 

18. The integrated seniority list of eligible staff for selection to a Group B post is based on the length of non-fortuitous service in scale Rs. _______. (6500-10500)

19. If adequate number of SC/ST employees are not available in the normal zone of consideration against reserved points, the field should be extended to _____ times the vacancies to pick up the SC/ST candidates. (five)

20. In case of selection to the post of APO, all employees who are eligible and volunteer for the selection should be considered without __________. (limitation to the number)

21. The selection to the Group B posts is based on _____ (a written test to adjudge the professional ability, viva voce and assessment of records by selection committee)

22. For selection to Group B posts other than accounts Department, the maximum marks and qualifying marks under the head ‘Professional ability’ are _______ and ______ respectively. (50, 30) 

23. For selection to the Group B posts other than accounts department, the maximum marks and qualifying marks under the head ‘Personality, Leadership etc.,’ are ___ and ___ respectively. (25, 15) 

24. For selection to the Group B posts other than Accounts Department, the maximum marks and qualifying marks under the head ‘Record of Service’ are ______ and ______ respectively. (25, 15) 

25. In written test for selection to the Group B posts, the questions on Official Language Policy and Rules should not be compulsory. (say true or false) 26. In a selection to the Group B posts, the successful candidates securing 80% and above shall be graded ________ and placed ___________ of the panel. (outstanding; on the top) 

27. In a selection to the Group B posts, the successful candidates securing marks between 60% and 79% shall be graded as ____________. (good) 48 

28. In selections to the Group B posts, the recommendations of the selection committee should be put up to ______________ for approval. (General Manager)

29. If the General Manager does not approve of the recommendation of the selection committee, he will record his reasons in writing there for and order _________ (a fresh selection) 

30. Once a panel for Group B post is approved by the General Manager, no amendment or alteration in the panel should be made except with the prior approval of ____________. (Railway Board) 

31. The Group B panels shall be current for a period of ________. (02 years) 

32. The panel for filling up the Group B posts shall be current for a period of two years from __________ or ___________ whichever is earlier. (the date of approval of the competent authority; till a fresh panel on the basis of next selection becomes available) 

33. In Group B selections, where provisional panels are drawn the currency will count from ________. (the date of approval of the provisional panel) 

34. In Group B selections, if the operation of an approved panel has been held in abeyance either wholly or partly as a result of injunction from the Court of Law, the currency of the panel should be reckoned after excluding ____________ . (the period covered by the Court’s directive)

35. After vacation of injunction/disposal by the Court of Law, Operation of the Group B panel should be with the personal approval of ________. (General Manager)

36. In exceptional circumstances, promotion to Group B posts with relaxed medical standards, should have the approval of ___________. (Railway Board) 

37. Promotion to Group B posts with relaxed medical standards with the approval of Railway Board will be purely on _________ basis. 38. In cases where employee eligible to take the selection are abroad on deputation, the selection may be finalized without waiting for them. (say true or false

39. Not more than _______ supplementary selection/s should be held to cater to the absentees. (one) 

40. An employee empanelled for promotion to Group B refusing promotion, should be debarred for promotion for ____________ period. (one year) 

41. If an employee refuses promotion when considered after a lapse of one year after his first refusal, his name should be deleted form the panel. (say true or false) 

42. The rules governing the promotion of Group C staff are contained in Section ____ of Chapter _____ IREM, Vol.I. (Section B of Chapter II)

43. As per the definition of promotion under para 211 of IREM, Vol. I, Promotion includes promotion from a ______ to a ________, form _______ to _________ from _______ to ________. (lower grade to a higher grade, from one class to another class, from one group to another group)

44. ‘Non-selection posts’ are ______, ________ or __________ which have not been declared as ‘selection posts’. (posts, grades or classes) 

45. The posts are declared as selection or non-selection for the purpose of promotion by ___________. (Railway Board) 

46. Unless specifically provided otherwise, the promotion shall be made without any regard for _________ or _________ . (communal or racial consideration) 49 

47. Non-selection posts shall be filled by promotion of the senior most suitable Railway servant. (say true or false) 

48. Suitability for non-selection post being determined by _______ on the basis of the record of service and/or departmental tests if necessary. (the competent authority) 

49. In a non-selection post, a senior Railway servant may be passed over only if he has been declared ________ for holding the post in question. (unfit) 

50. For promotion to non-selection post, staff in the immediate lower grade with a minimum of ______ years of service in that grade will only be eligible. (02 years) 

51. The service for the purpose of minimum 02 years in lower grade includes service rendered on ad hoc basis followed by ______ without break.(regular service). 

52. The condition of two years service should stand fulfilled at the time of _________ and not necessarily at the stage of consideration. (actual promotion)

53. The number of eligible staff for consideration for promotion to a non-selection post shall be equal to _________-. (number of vacancies assessed) 

54. The assessment of vacancies for non-selection post shall include existing vacancies plus anticipated during the next _________ months. (six) 

55. The anticipated vacancies are vacancies that arose due to ___________ i.e., retirement/supernannuation. 

56. An employee who has passed the suitability test for promotion to a non-selection post need not be called for the test again. (say true or false) 

57. A suitability test for non-selection post should be held at the interval which should not be less than _______ months. (six) 

58. The period of six months for holding suitability test for non-selection post is reckoned from the date of ___________ of the previous suitability test. 

59. ACP scheme is made effective from ____________.

 60. ACP scheme is not applicable to officers belonging to _____ service and to ____. 

61. No second ad hoc promotion shall be allowed under any circumstances. (say true or false) 

62. A junior should not be promoted on ad hoc basis ignoring a senior unless ______________. (the competent authority considers him unsuitable) 

63. There shall be no ad hoc promotions in __________ posts. (non-selection) 

64. Ad hoc promotions may be made in leave/short duration vacancies upto _____ months only. (04 months) 

65. Beyond the permissible period of 04 months, personal approval of _______ is required for continuance on ad hoc promotion. (CPO) 

66. The notification regarding ad hoc promotion shall consist of protection clause that _______________. (the promotion is ad hoc and does not give him any prescriptive right to hold the post on regular basis or for regular promotion) 

67. The ACP scheme became operational w.e.f. ___________. (01.10.1999) 

68. The ACP scheme requires creation of new posts for the purpose.(say true or false) 

69. The posts above the pay scale of __________ shall be filled strictly on vacancy based promotions. (Rs. 14300-18300) 

70. The highest pay scale upto which the financial upgradation shall be available is __________. (Rs. 14300-18300) 

71. The financial benefit under ACP scheme shall be granted from ____ or _____ whichever is later. (date of completion of eligibility period or from 1.10.99) 50 

72. The first financial upgradation under the ACP scheme shall be followed after _______ years of regular service. (12) 

73. If any employee has already got one regular promotion, he shall qualify for the second financial upgradation only on completion of ______ years of regular service under the ACP scheme. (24)

74. Financial upgradation under the ACP scheme shall be given to the next higher grade in accordance with the __________ in a cadre. (existing hierarchy) 

75. In the absence of defined hierarchical grades, financial upgradation shall be given in the ___________ standard pay scales. (immediate next higher) 

76. The financial upgradation under ACP scheme shall be purely _______ to the employee and has no relevance to his/her ________ position. (personal, seniority) 

77. A senior employee can claim for stepping up of pay on the ground that the junior has got higher pay scale under the ACP scheme. (say true or false) 

78. On upgradation under ACP scheme, pay of an employee shall be fixed under normal Rules under 1313(1)(a)(i) of IREC, Vol.II subject to a minimum financial benefit of Rs. ______. (100) 

79. Pay fixation benefit shall normally accrue at the time of regular promotion against a functional post in higher grade to an employee granted upgradation under ACP scheme. (say true or false) 80. The reservation orders/roster shall apply to the upgradations under ACP scheme. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What procedure is to be followed when an employee placed on panel is issued - 

(a) a major penalty charge sheet before issuing promotional order and a penalty of reduction to lower grade for a period of 03 years (NR) is imposed? 

(b) a minor penalty charge sheet before issuing promotional order and a penalty of withholding of increment is issued to become operative from a future date. 

2. What is meant by erroneous promotions? What action shall be taken when erroneous promotion is identified? 

3. Explain briefly about granting of adhoc promotions to staff in Selection and nonselection posts?

 4. Explain briefly the extant instructions to be borne in mind while setting up a selection board for selection to the post of Ch. OS in scale Rs. 7450-11500 in Personnel Branch? 

5. What are the main features of ACP Scheme? What procedures shall be followed while granting the benefits under ACP Scheme?

6. What do you mean by automatic empanelment of staff? 

7. Issue an office order promoting Mr. George, PI/Gr. II on ad hoc basis for the post of PI/Gr.I as per extant rules in force. 

8. Write short notes on:

(i) Ad hoc promotions 

(ii) Erroneous Promotions 

(iii) Refusal of promotion. 

(iv) In situ promotions 

(v) Promotion of staff against whom DAR cases are pending 

(vi) Pre-promotional Courses. 

(vii) Pre-promotional training. 

 (viii) Provident Fund: 

(A) Objective: 

1. The State Railway Provident Fund Rules are contained in _____________ of IREC., Vol.I. (Rules 901 to 946 of Chapter IX) 

2. The amount of subscription payable for any month shall be _________% of the Subscriber’s emoluments in case of SRPF(Contributory) staff. (10%) 

3. Arrears of subscription to Provident Fund shall be recovered, if the Railway servant is admitted to the fund with _____________ effect. (retrospective)

4. Interest of PF balances shall be credited with effect from __________ every year. (31st March) 

5. The authority competent to sanction an advance/withdrawl from PF in case of Group A or Group B Officer upto JA Grade is ____________. (CPO) 

6. The authority competent to sanction an advance/withdrawl from PF in respect of Group D staff is ____________. (APO or an officer of equal rank)

7. Dearness Pay shall be treated as pay for grant of advance/withdrawl from PF. (say true or false) 8. PF Advance/Withdrawl is sanctioned even after the incident as a special case subject to fulfillment of certain conditions. (say true or false) 

9. On satisfying the conditions for grant of final withdrawl from PF, the outstanding balance of advance can be converted into final withdrawl. (say true or false) 

10. PF Advance can be sanctioned on more than one account simultaneously. (say true or false) 

11. A new advance from PF shall not be granted unless ____________ of the previous advance has been repaid. 

12. Normally Railway servants who have completed _______ years of service may be granted final withdrawl from Provident Fund. 13. Withdrawl from PF on marriage account may be granted as a special case upto ________ months’ emoluments in the case of marriage of a female. 

14. The advance from PF granted for purchase of motor car shall be refundable in not more than __________ instalemnts. (36)

15. As a special case, advance from PF for purchase of motor car/scooter etc., shall be granted if the service falls short of _______ months to 15 years. (6 months) 

16. To meet the cost of legal expenses, advance from PF equal to ________ shall be granted. (three months’ pay or half the amount of PF balance whichever is less) 

17. To purchase consumer durables like TV, VCR etc., an advance from PF equal to _____________ shall be granted. (three months’ pay or half the amount of PF balance whichever is less) 

18. An advance from PF for construction of a house or flat will be granted only on submission of __________. (a plan duly approved by local municipal body) 

19. In the case of marriage of a male dependent family member of the subscriber, the advance granted shall be limited to ____________. (three months’ pay) 

20. In the case of marriage of a female dependent family member of the subscriber, the advance granted shall be limited to ________. (six months’ pay) 52 

21. Confinement is not covered under the term ‘illness’ under PF Rules. (say true or false) 

22. Advances from PF are permitted for betrothal ceremonies also. (say true of false) 

23. Withdrawls from PF for Educational expenses are permitted once in ________ months. (six months) 

24. Withdrwl from PF for meeting expenses in connection with illness of subscriber shall be limited to _________. (six moths’ pay of 50% of the balance at credit) 

25. The pay limit for grant of PF withdrawl for purchase of motor car shall be _______ (Rs. 10,500/-) 

26. The amount of withdrawl from PF for purchase of motor case shall be limited to ______ (Rs. 1,10,000/-) 

27. The amount of withdrawl from PF for purchase of motor cycle shall be limited to ___________. (Rs. 20,000/-) 

28. Final withdrawl for purchse of conveyance is allowed on one occasion only. (say true of false)

29. Final withdrawl for purchase of conveyance is allowed on completion of _______ years of service. (15 years) 

30. The amount of subscription wit5h interest standing to the credit of a subscriber in the fund may be withdrawn to meet a payment towards a policy of Life Insurance. (say true or false)

31. The new deposit linked insurance scheme came into force from ________ (1.1.89) 

32. The additional amount payable under the scheme shall not exceed ___________. 

33. The subscriber should have put in _______ years of service at the time of his death to become eligible for payment under the new Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme. (05 years) 

34. The average balance for the purpose of DLI shall be worked out on the basis of the balance at the credit at the end of each of the ______ months preceding the month in which the death occurs. (36 months) 

35. The PF scheme does not apply to persons appointed on contract basis. (say true or false) 

36. Part final withdrawl of ____ % of the balance at credit of a subscriber is permitted if applied within 12 months before retirement on superannuation. (90)

37. Part final withdrawl of _____ % of balance at the credit of a subscriber within 12 months before retirement is permitted without assigning any reason. (90)

38. The rate of interest on SRPF balances for the year 2004-05 is ______% p.a. (8%)

39. The amount of Deposit linked insurance payable to the successors even if the death of the subscriber is by committing suicide. (say true or false)

40. The amount of deposit linked insurance is payable to successors in case of missing employees whose whereabouts are not known after a lapse of ____ years. (7) 

41. The additional amount payable under DLI scheme shall not exceed Rs. _______ . (Rs. 60,000/-) 

42. The additional amount payable under DLI scheme shall not exceed Rs. 60,000/- w.e.f. ___________. (25.04.1998) 53 

43. The balance at the credit of a subscriber holding a post in scale of pay maximum of which is Rs. 12,000/- or more shall not have fallen below Rs. _______ to make him eligible for payment of additional amount. (Rs. 25,000/-)

44. The balance at the credit of a subscriber holding a post in scale of pay maximum of which is Rs.9,000/- or more but less than Rs.12,000/- shall not have fallen below ____ to make him eligible for payment of additional amount. (Rs. 15,000/-)

45. The balance at the credit of a subscriber holding a post in scale of pay maximum of which is Rs.3,500/- or more but less than Rs.9,000/- shall not have fallen below ____ to make him eligible for payment of additional amount. (Rs.10,000/-)

46. The balance at the credit of a subscriber holding a post in scale of pay maximum of which is less than Rs. 3,500/- shall not have fallen below Rs. _______ to make him eligible for payment of additional amount. (Rs. 6,000/-) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. To whom the State Railway Pension Rules apply and to whom they do not? 

2. Calculate the interest that can be credited to the PF account of Mr. X on 31.12.2001 based on the following data:

(i) Opening Balance as on 01.04.2000 .. Rs. 38,600/- 

(ii) Subscription towards PF through the year.. Rs. 1,800/- p.m., 

(iii)Advance from PF drawn during 11/2000.. Rs, 6,000/- 

(iv) Recovery towards PF advance Rs. 500/- p.m., 

(v) PF advance recovery commenced January, 2001 

(vi) Rate of interest .. 11% p.a. 

3. Mr. Y is transferred to another Railway and was relieved in the month of September, 2000. His salary was drawn in the old unit upto the month of August, 2000. Calculate the amount required to be transferred to the new unit based on the following data: 

(i) Opening balance as on 01.04.2000: Rs. 40,504/- 

(ii) Monthly subscription to PF account: Rs. 1,000/- 

(iii) Rate of interest applicable 11% p..a., 

4. Explain in detail the provisions regarding execution of nomination by a subscriber to the Provident Fund. 

5. What is Deposit Linked Insurance scheme? What are the provisions regarding payment of DLI to the beneficiaries in case of death of a subscriber to the fund? 

(ix) Recruitment Rules & Training: 

(A) Objective: 

1. GDCE stands for _____________________________. 

2. Employees working in the lower post only should be allowed to appear for GDCE. (say true or false) 

3. Cases of sports persons for recruitment and for out of turn promotion from Group D to C if other wise eligible, but does not possess the minimum educational qualification should be referred to __________. (Railway Board) 54 

4. RPF staff are not debarred from appearing in GDCE and other Departmental selections for promotion in Departments other than RPF/RPSF. (say true or false). 

5. The prefix “Apprentice” should not be used in the notifications published by RRBs for recruitment from open market except in the categories of Apprentices appointed in ___________ and _______ Departments. (Traffic and Commercial) 

6. GMs are empowered to re-engage retired para-medical staff on daily rates basis upto the age of _________ years. (62) 

7. Replacement panel against shortfall from RRB can be asked by the Railways within the ______________ in normal cases. (currency of the panel) 

8. Normally currency of the panels issued by RRB shall be for ___ year/s. (one year) 

9. The currency of the panels issued by RRB for Group C can be extended beyond one year for one more year with the approval of __________ (GM) 

10. The operation of the replacement panel should be ensured during the currency of the panel or latest upto _____ months of the expiry of the panel. (3 months)

11. The annual quota for recruitment of Sports persons for Group C on S.C. Railway through open advertisements is _______ (15).

12. The annual quota for recruitment of Sports persons for Group D on Zonal Hqrs., S.C. Railway through open advertisements is _______ (4).

13. The annual quota for recruitment of Sports persons for Group D on each division of S.C. Railway through open advertisements is _______ (3) 

14. The vacancies under sports quota can be carried forward. (say true or false).

15. The annual quota for S.C. Railway for recruitment of sportspersons to Group C under talent scouting is ______ (10) 

16. The annual quota for recruitment of sportspersons to Group D for each division under talent scouting is ______ (2) 

17. The annual quota for Zonal Hqrs., of S.C. Railway for recruitment of sportspersons to Group D under talent scouting is ______ (2)

18. The annual quota for recruitment against Scouts & Guides in Group C for S.C. Railway is ________ (02). 19. The annual quota for recruitment against Scouts & Guides in Group D for each division of this Railway is ______ (02).

20. The annual quota for recruitment against Cultural events in Group C for S.C. Railway is ________ (02). 

21. The annual quota for recruitment against Cultural events in Group D for each division of this Railway is ______ (nil). 

22. The examination fees for the examinations conducted by RRB is _____________. 

23. _____% of posts in Group C & D are reserved for persons with disabilities. 

24. The minimum age limit for recruitment in Railways is ___________. 

25. General Manager can relax the lower age limit by ____________. 

26. Upper age limit for CG appointment be relaxed freely. (say true or false) 

27. Upper age limit for appointment to Group C services in the lowest scale in Railways is ____ for general , _____ for OBC and _____ for SC/ST candidates. 

28. During 2000, Railway Board have directed that recruitment to Group D posts shall henceforth be undertaken by __________________ themselves. 

29. General Managers are empowered to engage Group D staff only as ___________. 

30. Currency of panels issued by RRBs is ______ extendable by ________ by GM. 55 

31. LDCE stands for ___________________________. 

32. Railway Board have introduced LDCE in the categories of OS/Gr.II and PI/Gr.I to an extent of __________ of the posts. 

33. The scheme of restructuring of the cadres is effective from _____________. 

34. During restructuring suitable number of posts were required to be surrendered since the scheme of restructuring is __________________. 

35. The new Pension scheme is effective from ______________.

36. A reservation of ________ % of vacancies has been provided for recruitment of the physically challenged person. 

37. _____% of vacancies are reserved for orthopaedically challenged. 

38. ____% of vacancies of ASMs in scale Rs.4500-7000 are filled by Direct Recruitment. 

39. ________% of the vacancies of Sr. Clerks are filled by promotion from amongst the Junior Clerks in the order of seniority. 

40. ________% of the vacancies of Sr. Clerks are filled by LDCE from amongst graduates working as Clerks in Scale Rs. 3050-4590. (13 1/3 %) 

41. _____% of vacancies of Sr. Clerks are filled by Direct Recruitment. 

42. Promotion through LDCE to an extent of 20% of the _________ (vacancies/posts) in the category of Office Superintendent/Gr.II has been introduced.

43. A matriculate recruited as Artisan (Skilled III) has to undergo the period of training for ______ years. 

44. In direct recruitment ______ vacancies of Group D _____ vacancies of Group C ae reserved for ex-servicemen. 

45. In case of blind, deaf and orthopaedically handicapped relaxation in age shall be granted upto _______ years. 

46. The educational qualification for direct recruitment of skilled artisan is _______. 

47. The maximum age limit for appointment of Group C employees belonging to general community is __________ years. 

48. ______ no. of posts are filled in Group D services against Scout Quota in a year. 49. ______ no. of posts are filled in Group D services against Cultural Quota.

50. _________ no. of posts are filled in Group D services against sports quota. 

51. Recruitment against Scouts, Sports and Cultural Quotas is to be completed by _________ for every year. 52. Reservation to SC/ST/OBC is applicable in sports quota. (say true or false) 

53. General Manager is competent to constitute the recruitment committee for group C and D posts against sports quota at Headquarters level. (say true or false) 

54. The age limit for recruitment of sports persons against Group D is between 18 to 33 years. (say true or false) 

55. The upper age limit for sports persons against sports quota for appointment in Group C and D is relaxable by 5 years an d 2 years against advertisement quota. (say true or false)

56. General Manager may relax the upper age limit in deserving and meritorious cases of sports persons against talent scout quota. (say true or false)

57. Outstanding sports persons can be appointed in intermediary grades with the approval of General Manager. (say true or false) 56

58. Sports persons promoted on out of turn basis can be allowed to count their seniority only when they come up for promotion in their turn. (say true or false)

59. The quota for each division against cultural quota recruitment is two. (say true or false) 

60. The cultural quota recruitment can be carried forward to next year if not completed by the end of each financial year. (say true or false) 

61. Rule of reservation for SC/ST/OBC is applicable for appointments against cultural quota. (say true or false) 

62. Only the General Manager is competent to make appointments against cultural quota. (say true or false) 

63. The quota against Cultural events for South Central Railway in Group C is just 02 per annum. (say true or false) 64. The recruitment in cultural quota will be done in pay scale of Rs. 4500-7000 and above. (say true or false) 

65. The minimum educational qualification required for cultural quota appointment besides certificate course in music/dance etc., is a graduation. (say true or false)

66. Who is competent to declare a post as suitable for appointment of physically handicapped persons? 

67. Post of SE/PW can be filled by physically disabled person. (say true or false)

68. The quota meant for each group of physically challenged, i.e., hearing impaired, visually challenged and orthopedically disabled can be exchanged at the end of three years. (say true or false) 

69. Can a candidate to be appointed on compassionate grounds but found to be orthopaedically disabled be charged against the quota for physically handicapped? (say true or false) 

70. Candidate appointed on physically handicapped quota should not be promoted to next higher grade, as there is no reservation for them in promotions. (say true or false) 

71. The PH quota, if not filled will lapse at the end of the recruitment year. (say true or false) 

72. DRM/CWM is competent to appoint a physically challenged candidate on compassionate grounds. (say true or false) 73. The upper age limit for physically challenged persons in recruitment of Group C and D is set at 15 years above the normal upper age limit. (say true or false) 

74. There are __________ Railway Recruitment Boards in the country.

75. The quota of reservation for recruitment of ex-servicemen in Group C is _____. 

76. _________ is competent to appoint a Group D servant on compassionate grounds. 

77. __________ is the competent authority to relax or modify the age limits and educational qualifications prescribed for recruitment to non-gazetted posts. 

78. __________ is the minimum educational qualification for appoint to Group D posts in Engineering Department. 

79. The minimum educational qualification prescribed for a Group D employee in TTM Organisation is _________. 

80. All the railway recruitment boards can recruit ex-service men for Railway service. (say true or false) 57 

81. General Manager can appoint 4 persons against Cultural Quota, every year in either Group C or D categories. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the rules for recruitment of Group C staff in Railways? 

2. What is the procedure for recruitment of Group D staff in Railways?

 3. What are the rules of appointment on compassionate grounds? 

4. What are the rules for absorption of medically decategorised staff? 

5. What are the different modes of recruitment in Railways to a Group C post?

6. Which is the agency that recruits Group C staff to Railways? What are the rules for placing an indent on that agency? 

7. What are the General Rules regarding Nationality of a candidate for appointment to Railway Services as laid down in R. 218 of IREC, Vol.I?

8. What is the laid down procedure for publication of employment notices for recruitment to Group C and D posts? 

9. What are the various concessions extended to SC/ST candidates? 

10. What are the facilities extended to the SC/ST Railway employees’ Associations? 

12. What are the revised classifications of Railway Service and the pay limits?

13. Describe the procedure for recruitment against Group D services on Indian Railways?

14. How many Group C and Group D posts are filled under Sports quota at Zonal/Divisional level? What is the procedure to be followed for filling up the Sports Quota vacancies? 

15. Write a letter to the District authorities requesting for verification of character and antecedents of a newly recruited candidate through RRB/SC for the post of Asst. Station Master in scale Rs. 4500-7000 whose period of residence in Prakasam District is for the last 05 years.

(x) Reservation Rules 

(A) Objective: 

1. ________________ is competent to issue caste certificates in Andhra Pradesh. 

2. Reservation for SC/ST in allotment of quarters is ______________. 

3. _____________% of reservation is provided to OBCs in recruitment. 

4. As a concession to SC/ST employees _________% of vacant quarters should be earmarked in allotment of quarters. 

5. A single vacancy in a selection may be reserved for SC only. (say true or false) 

6. Single post in a __________ cadre may be filled on regular basis without applying reservation. (single post) 

7. Instructions regarding post based roster for promotion in Group C and D categories are also apply for promotion from Group C to ______ and within _______ categories. (Group B, Group B)

8. Any fresh creation of work charged or revenue posts of Assistant Officers may be added to the fixed cadre strength of _______ and rosters expanded. (Group B) 58 

9. The basic principle of post based reservation is __________. (that the number of posts filled by reservation by any category in a cadre should be equal to the quota prescribed for that category)

10. After introduction of post based reservation, it is still permissible to fill up a post reserved for ST by a SC candidate by exchange. (say true or false) 

11. There is a ban on dereservation of vacancies reserved for SCs,ST and OBCs in direct recruitment. (say true or false) 

12. If the vacancies reserved for SCs/STs/OBCs cannot be filled recruitment, they shall be carried forward as backlog vacancies to the subsequent recruitment years without any limitation. (say true or false) 

13. The income limit to exclude socially advanced persons from the purview of reservation for OBCs has been revised to ______ gross annual income. (2.5 laks)

14. Before appointing a person belonging to OBC category, the appointing authority should ensue that the person does not belong to __________ on the crucial date. (creamy layer) 

15. The %age reservation for SC/ST/OC for each Railway in recruitment of all Group C and will be _____, ______ and ______ respectively. (15%, 7.5% and 27%) 

16. As and when the Railway servants are summoned by the National Commission to attend any hearing, they may be spared as on duty. (say true or false)

17. When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, the applications of candidates with only _________ as postal charges may be allowed. (Rs. 10/-)

18. When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, age relaxation is not allowed. (say true or false) 

19. When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, are they eligible for the free pass facility? (Yes) 

20. The ceiling of _______ % reservation for SC/ST on total number of vacancies will apply only on vacancies that arise in the ________ year. (50, current) 

21. In respect of backlog/cary forward of vacancies, the ceiling of 50% will not apply. (say true or false)

22. The duration of pre-selection coaching for SC/ST candidates for selection to Group B posts should be for _________ weeks. (3 to 4 weeks) 

23. SC/ST employees empanelled through selection/LDCE without relaxation will be treated as _________ vis a vis those SC/ST employees empanelled with relaxed standards. (senior) 

24. Recognition to more than one SC/ST association may be considered favourably. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. What are the important features of the Post Based Rosters? How many types of rosters are there? What are the points to be kept in view while preparing rosters? 

2. What are the various concessions extended to the employees belonging to SC/ST communities in Railway right from recruitment to superannuation? 

3. What do you mean by the scheme of ‘best among the failed’? What are the provisions regarding imparting in-service training and inclusion of the names in the panel after such training? 59 

4. What are the instructions regarding staff belonging to SC/ST communities being selected against general merit to selection posts and non-selection posts? 

5. Write a letter to the concerned revenue authorities requesting for verification of the caste certificate based on the following details: Name of the employee: Mr. X S/O. Mr. Y. Caste as per the certificate: Yerukula – ST Certificate issuing authority: MRO/BZA Place of birth/brought up of the employee: Chennai. Date of Appointment and Designation: 01.10.1995. 

6. If sufficient number of SC/ST/OBC candidates fit for appointment against reserved vacancies are not available, what is the prescribed procedure for filling up such reserved vacancies in direct recruitment as well as in case of promotion? (SC 46/2004)

 (xi) Selections:

 (A) Objective: 

1. __________________ is competent to extend the currency of the selection panel.

 2. ________ % of marks are allotted for Professional ability if there is no viva voce. 

3. _________ % of marks are allotted for Professional ability if there is viva voce. 

4. The currency of the panel can be extended for a period of ________ with the approval of ___________. 

5. __________ is the competent authority to permit second supplementary written test in a selection post. 

6. The candidates who secure __________ % of marks or above in aggregate shall be classified as outstanding in a selection. 

7. For selection to the post in scale Rs. 5500-9000, the selection board shall consist of ______________. 

8. For selection to the post in scale Rs. 5000-8000, the selection board shall consist of ______________.

 9. The trade test shall be conducted by _______________. 

10. Selection posts are filled in on the basis of the rule of seniority cum suitability. (say true or false) 

11. Filling up of a single post in single post cadre without applying reservation on ad hoc basis is permissible. (say true or false) 

12. Selection posts shall be filled by a __________ of selection made by selection board from amongst the staff eligible for selection. (positive act)

13. The positive act of selection shall consist of only __________ to assess the professional ability of the candidates. (written test) 

14. In case of selection to the post of Teachers the positive act of selection consist of both ________ and _________. (written test and viva voce test) 

15. A reasonable _________ notice should be sent to the candidates before the date of examination. (advance) 

16. The staff in the immediate lower grade with a minimum of _________ service in that grade only will be eligible for promotion. (02 yars) 60 

17. If a junior is eligible for promotion, his senior also will be eligible for such promotion, although ____________. (he might not have put in a total service of two years or more) 

18. The positive act of selection for promotion to Loco Pilot (Passenger) will consist of __________ only to assess the professional ability of the candidates after passing the prescribed promotional course. (viva voce) 19. Eligible staff upto _______ times the number of staff to be empanelled will be called for the selection. (three)

 20. Persons who have expressed ____________ should not be reckoned in the zone of consideration. (unwillingness) 

21. The assessment of vacancies for a selection post will include the existing vacancies and those anticipated during the course of next ________ months. (15) 

22. In case of selection to ex-cadre posts, actual vacancies plus those anticipated in the next ________ should be taken into account for the purpose of assessment. (02 years) 

23. The vacancies that arise due to likely acceptance of voluntary retirement/resignation shall be counted as anticipated for assessment of vacancies. (say true or false) 

24. The vacancies that arise due to staff likely to go on transfer to other Railways/Divisions during the period under consideration shall be counted as anticipated for assessment of vacancies. (say true or false) 

25. In regard to selection posts, it is essential that all the selections are conducted ________ in a regular manner. (annually) 

26. In case holding of next selection becomes necessary, the same may be held after a minimum gap of __________ from the date of approval of the pervious panel. (six months) 

27. In case of filling up of selection posts in safety categories, if it becomes necessary to hold the next selection within a gap of six months, the same may be held with the personal approval of ____________. (General Manager) 

28. Selection Board may be constituted under the orders of _______ or _________ or _______ not lower than a DRM/ADRM/CWM. (GM, HOD, other competent authority) 

29. Selection Boards shall consist of not less than _________ officers. (three) 

30. One of the selection board members shall be a _________ and one of the members shall be from a department other than ___________. (Personnel Officer; that for which selection is held)

 31. For selection posts in scale Rs. 5500-9000 and above, the selection boards shall consist of officers of ___________ . (JA Grade) 

32. The answer books in a selection are invariably evaluated by a member officer of the department _____________. (for which selection is being held)

33. In written test held as part of the selection for promotion to the ___________ grade selection post in a category, objective questions should be set for ______% of the total marks.

34. In the written test held as part of the selection for promotion to other lower grade selection posts, objective type questions should be set to the extent of about _____% of the total marks. (25%) 61 

35. Grace marks may be allowed by the paper evaluating officer in individual cases. (say true or false) 

36. Correction in the evaluation sheet for selection, should be attested by at least one of the committee members. (say true or false) 

37. Maximum marks allotted in selections to posts within Group C for professional ability shall be __________ (50)

38. Maximum marks allotted in selections to posts within Group C for record of service shall be __________ (30)

 39. Maximum marks allotted in selections to posts within Group C for seniority shall be __________ (20) 

40. The qualifying marks for professional ability in selections to posts within Group C shall be ________. (30)

41. Candidates must obtain a minimum of _______% marks in professional ability and _______% marks in of the aggregate for being placed on the panel. (60, 60)

42. In cases where both written and viva voce are part of selection, criteria for written test should not be less than ______ marks and the candidates must secure _____ % of marks in written for being called for viva voce. (35, 60) 

43. In cases of selections where both written and viva voce tests are prescribed for selection, notional seniority marks are added to decide the eligibility for _______. (viva voce only) 

44. In case of selections to ex-cadre posts and posts filed by calling for volunteers, __________ marks will not be added to decide the eligibility for viva voce. (notional seniority) 

45. The names of the candidates should be arranged on the panel in the order of _____. (seniority) 

46. The candidates securing _______% or more marks in a selection are graded as outstanding. (80) 

47. The candidates graded as outstanding and are allowed to supersede not more than _________ % of total field of eligibility. (50)

48. The panels drawn by Selection Boards and approved by the competent authority shall be current for _________ years. (02) 

49. The selection panels are current for 02 years from __________ or ________ whichever is earlier. (the date of approval by the competent authority, till they are exhausted) 

50. In case a senior person in a selection panel does not officiate in the higher grade for reasons of his own, it is implied that he has refused the promotion (say true or false) 

51. Removal of a Railway servant’s name from the panel would require the approval of ____________. (the authority next above that approved the panel initially) 

52. For automatic empanelment, the original Group C post, the intermediate Group C selection post and the present post held by the employee are all in the same __________. (avenue of promotion) 

53. For automatic empanelment, none of the posts in question is a _______ post for which several categories of staff are eligible. (general post) 52. Not more than ________ supplementary selection/s should normally be held to cater to the needs of absentees. (one) 62 

53. A second supplementary selection should be held rarely with the personal approval of ___________ based on merits of each case. (CPO)

54. The employee refusing promotion expressly or otherwise is debarred for future promotion for ________. (one year)

55. Promotion after one year will be subject to continued validity of the panel in which he is borne, otherwise he will have to appear again in the selection. (say true or false)

56. At the end of one year if the employee again refuses promotion at the outstation, his name may be deleted from the panel. 9say true or false) 

57. Deletion of the name from the panel, due to refusal of promotion at outstation at the end of one year of refusal period, shall be automatic and no approval is needed. (say true or false) 58. The employee refused promotion will rank junior to those promoted from the same panel earlier to him. (say true or false) 

59. The employee refused promotion will rank junior to those promoted during the refusal period from a panel as a result fresh selection subsequently held during the refusal period. (say true or false) 

60. Refusal of promotion has no relevance to a particular post at a particular station. (say true or false) 

61. Refusal to officiate on promotion at the same station may be taken as ________. (refusal to work)

62. Refusal to officiate on promotion at the same station may be taken as refusal to work and attracts disciplinary action. (say true or false) 

63. An employee may officiate in higher grade on ad hoc basis for ______ weeks without passing trade test. (six)

64. Trade Test may comprise of both oral and practical to be held simultaneously. (say true or false) 

65. There shall be no separate oral test not forming part of trade test for artisan categories for the purpose of screening them. (say true or false) 

66. Exemption may be given from passing a prescribed promotional course in deserving cases. (say true or false) 

67. In case promotional course has been prescribed as a pre-requisite condition to promotion, the employee may be allowed _____ chances to pass the course at the cost of administration. (3)

68. In case promotional course has been prescribed as a pre-requisite condition to promotion, any chances allowed beyond three is at the cost of employee. (say true or false) 

69. Staff promoted to rectify the administrative error may be on ___ basis. (proforma) 

70. In case of proforma promotion, the pay may be allowed from ________. (the date of actual promotion)

71. In case of proforma promotions, arrears are not admissible since the employee concerned shoulder ___________. (the duties and responsibilities of higher post prospectively)

72. The question whether the promotion/appointment of a particular Railway servant to a post was erroneous or not should be decided by an authority _________ than the appointing authority. (next higher) 63 

73. Whether the appointing authority is the President or Railway Board, the decision regarding erroneous promotion should rest with _________. (the President) 

74. In selection posts of a cadre, the marks allotted under the head seniority is ________. (20)

75. In selection posts of a cadre, the marks allotted under the head record of service is ________. (30) 

76. The head ‘personality, leadership etc.,’ for assessment of the suitability of a candidate in selections is done away with. (say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. Explain the process of filling up of the vacancies in a selection post from the stage of assessment of vacancies to empanelment.

 2. Explain the process of filling up of the vacancies in a non-selection post. 

3. Explain the provisions regarding Trade Tests for artisan categories. 

4. What is erroneous promotion? What action is suggested in the rules to deal with the erroneous promotions?

 5. Write Short notes on: 

(i) concept of anticipated vacancies. 

(ii) assessment of vacancies 

(iii) selection to persons on deputation. 

(iv) Currency of panels 

(v) Automatic empanelment 

(vii) Supplementary selections. 

(xii) Seniority Rules. 

(A) Objective: 

1. The general principles that may be followed in dertermining the senioirty of nongazetted Railway servants are enumerated in Chapter ______ of the IREM, Vol.I. (Chapter III)

2. The seniority among the incumbents of a post in ;a grade is governed by the __________ . (the date of appointment to the grade)

3. Grant of pay higher than initial pay shuld not confer on a Railway servant seniority above those who are already appointed regularly. (say true or false) 

4. The criterion for determination of seniority of a direct recruit should be __________. (the date of joining the working post after due process) 

5. The criterion for determination of seniority of a promotee should be __________. (the date of regular promotion after due process) 

6. When the dates of entry into a grade of the promotees and direct recruits are the same, they should be put in ________ positions, the promotees being senior to the direct recruits. (alternate)

7. In case training period is curtailed, the date of joining the working post in case of direct recruit shall be _____________. (the date he would have normally come to a working post after completion of the prescribed training) 

8. The seniority of the candidates recruited through RRB and sent for initial training is to be fixed in the order of __________. (merit at the examination held at the end of training) 64 

9. In case no initial training is prescribed, the seniority of the candidates recruited through RRB is fixed in the order of ______. (merit assigned by RRB) 

10. When two or more candidates are declared of the equal merit at one and the same examination, their relative seniority is determined by the _______. (date of birth)

11. In case date of birth becomes the criterion for determining the seniority, the ________candidate becomes the senior. (older)

12. In case of mutual transfer to a different seniority unit, their seniority is based on the ____________ of the railway servant with whom they have exchanged, which ever of the two may be lower. (date of promotion) 

13. In case of transfer to a different seniority unit in the interest of administration, the seniority is regulated by ______ (date of promotion/appointment to the grade as the case may be) 

14. The Railway servants transferred at their own request from one seniority unit to another shall be placed ________ the existing confirmed, temporary and officiating Railway servants in the __________ grade. (below, relevant) 

15. Transfer at own request to a different seniority unit is permitted if there is ________ . (element of direct recruitment) 

16. Transfer on request shall not be allowed in _________ grades in which all posts are filled entirely by promotion of staff from lower grades. (intermediate) 

17. When dates of appointment to a grade is the same, __________ shall determine the seniority. (the dates of entry into grade next below it) 

18. In case the dates of entry into grade next below that in which the seniority is being determined also coincide, the dates of entry into each of the _________ shall determine the seniority. (lower grades in order down to the lowest grade in the channel of promotion) 

19. If the dates of entry in each of the lower grades in the channel also are identical, then the __________ shall determine the seniority. (relative dates of birth)

20. The relative seniority of the Railway servants passing the examination/test in their due turn and on the same date shall be determined with reference to their ______ . (substantive or basic seniority) 

21. When a post is filled by considering staff of different seniority units, the total length of continuous service in the ______ or ________ grade held by the employees shall be the determining factor for assigning seniority. (same, equivalent) 

22. While deciding the relative seniority of employee in an intermediate grade belonging to different seniority units, _________ service only should be taken into account. (non-fortuitous) 

23. Non fortuitous service means the service rendered after the date of ________ after _________. (regular promotion, due process)

24. Railway servants may be permitted to see the seniority list in which their names are placed. (say true or false) 

25. In case the seniority lists cannot be conveniently arranged for perusal by the concerned Railway servants, they may be informed of their position in the seniority list on ________. (request) 65

26. Staff concerned may be allowed to represent about the assignment of their seniority position within a period of ________ after the publishing of the seniority list. (one year) 

27. No cases of revision in seniority lists should be entertained beyond one year. (say true or false) 

28. Reduction in pay __________ affect a Railway servant’s position on the seniority list. (Choose correct answer – does or does not)

29. If the period of reduction to a lower service, grade or post is not specified in the order imposing the penalty, the person loses his ___________ in the higher service, grade or post. (original seniority) 

30. The seniority of a Railway servant, who is reduced to a lower service, grade or post for an unspecified period, should be determined by ________ without regard to the service rendered by him in such service, grade or post. (the date of repromotion) 

31. Where staff is appointed to Railway service below the prescribed minimum age limit, the underage service will also count for the purpose of seniority. (say true or false)

32. The seniority of the medically decategorised staff will be fixed with reference to the __________. (length of service in equivalent grade prior to medical decategorisation) 

33. The staff who get their cases recommended for change of category on medical grounds will be treated as _____________. (transferred on own request) 

34. Sr. Clerks in scale Rs. 4500-7000 and Stenos in scale Rs. 4000-6000 are treated on par for the purpose of preparing integrated seniority for Welfare Inspectors.(say true or false) 

(B) Descriptive: 

1. How seniority of a Non-gazetted employee is fixed:

a. on appointment through RRB where there is no training. 

b. On absorption after initial training. c. Transfer on administrative grounds. 

d. Transfer on request. e. On transfer to another post on medical decategorisation. 

f. On transfer to another post on surplus account. 

g. On mutual exchange with another employee in other unit. 

2. What is the significance of a ‘Seniority List’? What are the general rules for drawl and circulation of seniority lists? 

3. Write short notes on: 

(i) inter se seniority 

(ii) integrated seniority 

(iii) Fortuitous service 

(xiii) Transfer/Transfer Grant: 

(A) Objective: 66 

1. Group D staff recruited prior to ________ without the condition of qualification will be eligible to seek transfer on request in recruitment grade on bottom seniority. (04.12.1998) 

2. Group D staff recruited after _________ with relaxation of qualification will be eligible to seek transfer on request in recruitment grade on bottom seniority. (04.12.1998) 

3. 50% of DA is taken into account as Dearness Pay for arriving at the quantum of composite transfer grant, in case of staff transferred prior to 01.04.2004 but relieved after that date. (say true or false).

4. Staff transported their luggage at their own on transfer without availing the facility of Kit Pass are entitled to the Composite Transfer Grant without any cut in the quantum. (say true or false) 

5. In case the Railway accommodation is permitted to be retained by the family of the deceased for a period of 02 years, the time limit for availing the Composite transfer grant is _________ . (30 months) 

6. Claims for composite transfer grant can be entertained and paid along with settlement dues to the retiring staff. (say true or false) 

7. Requests for transfer of sports persons recruited against sports quota form one Railway/unit/Division to another Railway/Unit/Division may be considered if the sports person has completed _______ years of service. (10 years) 

8. The requests of the sports persons for transfer on mutual basis from one Zone/Division/Unit to another provided both are __________. (sports persons)

9. Cases involving inter Railway transfers of sports persons shall be referred to __________ for approval. (Railway Board) 

10. All communications regarding transfer should be signed by ______ with his name and designation appearing below the signature. (a Gazetted Personnel Officer) 

11. The memorandum/order sparing the employee on transfer should have the ________, ________ and _________ of the employee duly attested by the officer signing the memorandum/order of relief. (photograph, signature and LTI)

12. Staff qualified in GDCE and get posted to a station of their choice are entitled to Transfer Grant. (say true or false) (B) Descriptive: 

1. Write short notes on:

 (i) Transfer in the interest of Administration

 (ii) Transfer on request of the employee 

(iii) Posting of Wife and husband 

(iv) Periodical Transfers 

(v) Composite Transfer Grant. 

XX. Hours of Employment Regulations.

(A) Objective: 

1. Staff of essentially intermittent category must have a minimum of ______ consecutive hours of rest in a week include a full night. 

2. The staff whose daily hours of duty include periods of inaction aggregating to _______ hours or more are declared as essentially intermittent. 

3. The intensive worker must have a minimum of ______ hours of rest in a week. 

4. The rostered hours of duty of an intensive worker in a week shall be ____ hours. 

5. Rostered hours of duty of essentially intermittent worker in a week shall be ____ . 

6. Railway servants employed in a confidential capacity are classified as ______.

7. Asst. Surgeons, matrons, sisters-in-charge & mid-wives are classified as _______. 

8. Continuous staff are allowed a period of rest of _______ hours each week. 

9. Casual Labour are governed under HOER. (say true or false) 

10. In calculating the period of overtime, fraction of an hour less than 30 minutes shall be dropped. (say true or false). 

11. Principles of averaging will not apply to Running staff. (say true of false) 

12. Principles of averaging will apply to shift workers. (say true of false)

13. The period of averaging will be _________ in case of EI workers other than C class gatemen, caretakers of rest houses and saloon attendants etc.,

14. In case of C class gatemen, Care takers of rest houses & saloon attendants classified as Essentially Intermittent, the period of averaging shall be _________. 

15. No leave reserve shall be provided for staff in Railway schools. (say true of false). 

16. In the category of Permanent Way Inspectors the leave reserve shall be ___ %.

17. The weekly rest for essentially intermittent staff shall be __________ continuous hours in a week including one full night in bed. 

18. When an employee work overtime beyond statutory limits, the payment of OT wil be made _________ times the ordinary rate of pay. 

19. PR under HOER cannot be spread over two calendar days. (say true or false) 

20. The staff excluded are eligible for night duty allowance. (say true or false)

 (B) Descriptive: 

1. Describe the provisions of Hours of Employment regulations?

2. How are staff classified under HOER? What procedure is adopted for change of classification?

3. What notices are required to be displayed at the site of work under HOER? What are the registers required to be maintained? 

4. What is job analysis? What are the mechanics of Job Analysis?

5. Define & explain:

 (i) Intensive 

(ii) Essentially intermittent 

(iii) Long on 

(iv) Short off

(v) Split Shift 

(vi) Rest Givers 

(vii) Single OT 

(viii) OTA to Running Staff 

(ix) Road side and other than road side stations 

(x) sustained attention 

(xi) temporary exemption 

(xii) Principles of averaging 68 

6. Explain the need for HOER in Railways? Define and explain different classifications under HOER duly giving rostered/statutory hours of work and rest? 

7. How is overtime calculated for different categories of staff under HOER? Explain with examples. 

(C) Practical Questions:

 a) Draft a letter recommending the change of classification of Asst. Station Masters of a way side station from Essentially Intermittent to Continuous. 

b) What are the aspects to be covered in the inspection of a station, a shed and a subordinate office? c) Put up a note to the competent authority seeking approval for change of classification from Continuous to Essentially intermittent based on the proposal and report received from the division. 

XXII. Labour Laws

1) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 

A. Objective: 

1. Casual workers who have attained temporary status can be terminated for their misbehaviour/misconduct by giving show cause notice and DAR proceedings need not be followed. (say true or false) 

2. Railway schools and Railway training schools are not covered under the provisions of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. (say true or false) 

3. Dispute between workmen and workmen which is connected with the employment or non-employment is called industrial dispute. (say true or false) 

4. Casual labour in Railway Projects are workmen in terms of Industrial Disputes Act,, 1947. (say true or false) 

5. Break in service involves forfeiture of all leave earned upto the day of strike. (say true or false) 

6. A workman shall be deemed to have completed one year of continuous service in the industry, if he has actually worked for not less than ______ days during a period of 12 calendar months.

 B. Descriptive:

1. What are the salient features of the Industrial Disputes Act?

2. What do you mean by a strike? What are the two types of strikes? What are the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act regarding Strikes? 

3. What is lock out? What are the differences between strike and lock out?

4. What is meant illegal strikes? What are the effects of illegal strikes? 

5. What are the different machineries provided in the Industrial Disputes Act for resolving the disputes between workmen and employers?

6. What is meant by retrenchment under the ID Act? What are the conditions precedent to retrenchment? 

7. Write short notes on: 

(i) Strike 

(ii) Lock out 

(iii) Lay Off 

(iv) Dies non 

(v) Public Utility Service 

(viii) Conciliation officers under ID Act, 1947 

(vii) National Industrial Tribunal 

(v) Break in service 

2) Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act

 3. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 

A. Objective: 

1. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 applies to the persons appointed through a Subcontractor by persons fulfilling a contract with a Railway administration. (say true or false)

 2. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 provides for a remedy for wages earned but not paid. (say true or false) 70 

3. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 does not provide for a remedy for investigation of a dispute as to whether the employee should be retained in one job. (say true or false) 

4. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 applies to a persons whose wages in respect of a wage period average below Rs. __________ per month. 

5. The term wages under Payment of Wages Act, 1936 include any remuneration payable under any award of a court. (say true or false) 

6. The term wages under Payment of Wages Act, 1936 include any remuneration to which the person employed is entitled to in respect of any leave period. (say true or false) 

7. Any Bonus, which does not form part of remuneration payable under the terms of employment, is not wages in terms of Payment of Wages Act, 1936? (say true of false) 

8. Wages under Payment of Wages Act, 1936 does not include mileage allowance payable to running staff. (say true or false) 

9. Normally ________ is nominated a pay master in the divisions. 10. No Wage period shall exceed _____________.

11. Wages hall be paid within ______ days of the last day of the wage period in an establishment where less than 1000 are employed. 

12. Wages hall be paid within ______ days of the last day of the wage period in an establishment where more than 1000 are employed. 

13. If the employment of any person is terminated by the employer, the wages earned by him shall be paid before _______________ from the day on which his employment is terminated. 

14. All wages shall be paid in _______ or _______ or __________. 

15. The employer may pay the wages by cheque or credit the wages in a bank account after ___________. 

16. Fines imposed on an employee can not be deducted from the wages. (say true or false). 

17. The total amount of deduction from wages in a wage period shall not exceed ______ % in case whole or part of such deduction is made for payment to Cooperative Societies.

 B. Descriptive: 

1. What are the salient features of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936? 

2. Write briefly about the applicability of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936? 

3. What do you mean by ‘wages’ under PW Act? What are permissible deductions from the wages of the employee governed under Payment of wages Act, 1936? 

4. What do you mean by Wage period? What are different wage periods in operation on Railways? What are the provisions regarding wage periods under the Act? 

5 List out different Acts and omissions suggested under Payment of Wages Act? What are the penalties prescribed under the PW Act for breach of acts? 71 

4. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 A. Objective: 1. In fixing minimum wages ______________ is always taken into consideration. 

2. In Railways, minimum wages admissible to workers in a particular locality are fixed by __________________. 

B. Descriptive: 

1. What are the salient features of the Minimum Wages Act, 1966?

2. What categories of staff of Railways come under the purview of the Minimum Wages Act? What special privileges do they enjoy as regards wages? 

3. What notices are required to be displayed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948? What penalties are prescribed under the Act for different offences? 

5. The Workmen Compensation Act, 1923 

A. Objective: 

1. The Productivity Linked Bonus forms part of wages within the meaning of Workmen’s Compensation Act. (say true or false) 

2. The cost of agreement, if any, so executed by dependents of deceased railway servant under Workmen’s Compensation Act shall be borne by ___________________.

3. Cost of agreement, if any, executed by surviving railway servant under Workmen’s Compensation Act shall be borne by _____. 

4. National Holiday Allowance is inclusive in the term wages under the Workmen Compensation Act, 1923. (say true of false)

 5. Value of clothing supplied to the staff is not wages for the purpose of compensation under Workmen Compensation Act, 1923. (say true or false) (false) 

6. Casual Labour are governed under WC Act, 1923. (say true or false) 

7. The category of pay clerk would not fall within the definition of workman under the Workmen Compensation Act, 1923. (say true of false) 

8. Vendors/waiters employed in catering department are not covered under the definition of workman under WC Act, 1923. (say true of false). 

9. Disablement which reduces temporarily the earning capacity of a workman in any employment in which he was engaged at the time of accident resulting in disablement is called ______________. 

10. Disablement which permanently reduces the earning capacity of a workman in every employment which he was capable of undertaking at the time of accident resulting in disablement is called ___________. 

11. Disablement not only reduces earning capacity of workman but incapacitates him from all work which he was capable of performing at the time of accident is called _____________ . 

12. Amount of compensation payable for death resulting from the injury is equal to ____ % of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor or an amount of Rs. ________ whichever is more. 72 

13. The amount of compensation payable for permanent total disablement resulting from the injury is equal to ________ % of monthly wages multiplied by the relevant factor or an amount of Rs. _____________ whichever is more. 

14. Half monthly payments under WC Act shall be payable on ______ day from the date of disablement, if it lasts for a period of 28 days or more. 

15. Half monthly payments under WC Act shall be payable on __________ day from the date of disablement, if it lasts for a period of less than 28 days. 

16. Any payment or allowance received from employer for medical treatment is not called payment towards compensation under WC Act, 1923. (say true or false). 

17. Employer is liable to pay compensation to workman, if a personal injury is caused to the workman by accident arising _________ his employment.

18. The employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in respect of an injury caused by an accident which is directly attributable to the workman under the influence of drinks/drugs at the time of accident. (say true or false).

 19. The employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in respect of an injury caused by an accident which is directly attributable to the workman under the influence of drinks/drugs at the time of accident even when such injury results in his death. (say true or false). 

20. Wilful disregard/removal of any safety guard which leads to an accident in which the workman is injured, no compensation shall be payable by the employer when such injury results in his death. (say true or false).

 21. Payment of compensation shall be made through _____________ in respect of a workman whose injury has resulted in death. 

22. Appeal against the orders of the Commissioner for Workmen Compensation shall lie to ____________ if a question of law is involved.

 B. Descriptive: 

1. What are the salient features of Workmen Compensation Act, 1923?

2. What are the circumstances under which the employer is liable to pay compensation to a workman under the Workmen Compensation Act, 1923? 

3. Are the daily rated Casual labour, Apprentices or the substitutes are governed under the provisions of Workmen Compensation Act, 1923? What are the relevant provisions of the Act? 

4. How are monthly wages determined for the purpose of calculation of compensation under the provisions of Workmen Compensation Act, 1923? 

5. What are the different kinds of disablements and compensation payable for each? 

6. Define and explain: 

(i) Permanent Partial disablement 

(ii)Temporary partial disablement 

(iii) Half monthly payments 

(iv) Workman under WCA. 

(v) Wages under WCA. 

(vi) Total disablement. 73 XXIII. Right to Information Act 

1) When the RTI Act came into force? 

2) What are the main aims and objectives of RTI Act? 

3) Define the term ‘information’ under RTI Act. 

4) What are the terms ‘Record’ and ‘Right to Information’ meant under RTI Act?

5) What is the procedure to make a request for information under RTI Act? 

6) What is time limit prescribed where the information sought for concerns the life or liberty of a person? 

7) Describe the circumstances under which there shall be no obligation to give the information to any citizen? 

8) What is mant by ‘third party information’ under RTI Act? 

9) Describe the constitution of Central Information Commission under RTI Act.

 10) What is the term of office of the Chief Information Commissioner? 

11) What is the minimum and maximum penalty that can be imposed at the time of deciding any complaint or offence for not providing the information or refusal to receive any application under RTI Act. 

12) Which are the organizations the RTI Act do not apply?

13) What is the procedure for collection of fee for providing information under RTI Act? 

14) Say True or False –

a) An applicant making request under RTI Act shall require to give any reasons for the request

b) The Chief Information Commissioner is eligible for re-appointment under the RTI Act. 

15) Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioner? 

XXIV. Official Language Act and Rules: 

(A) Objective: 

1. In terms of Article 342 (1) of The Constitution of India, __________ language in _________ script shall be the official language of the Union. (Hindi, Devanagari) 

2. Article 343 (2) of the Constitution of India empowers ______________________ to authorize use of Hindi in addition English. (The President of India)

 3. The Official Language Act was passed in _______________. (1963) 

4. According to Official Language Rules, India is divided into ____ regions and they are ______, _______ and _________. (three, Region A, Region B and Region C)

5. What are the States that come under Region A? (Bihar, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Delhi). 

6. What are the States that come under Region B? (Gujarat, Maharastra, Punjab and the Union territories of Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Chandigarh).

7. Region C means the states _____________. (other than those in Regions A & B) 74 

8. Communications from Central Government Offices to the States, Offices and persons in _________ Region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, a Hindi translation shall accompany. (Region A) 

9. Communications from Central Govt. Offices to States or Offices in ______ region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, Hindi translation shall accompany. (B)

 10. Communications from Central Govt. Offices to persons in Region B shall be in____________. (Hindi or English) 

11. Communications from Central Government Offices to States or Persons in Region C shall be in ____________. (English) 

12. Communications between Central Government Offices – between one Ministry or Department and another may be in __________________ . (Hindi or English) 

13. Communications between Central Government Offices – between one Ministry or Department and attached/subordinate offices in Region A may be in __ depending on number of persons having another may be in _________. (Hindi or English) 

14. Communications between Central Govt. Offices in Region A shall be in _. (Hindi) 

15. Communications between Central Govt Offices in Region B or C may be in _________. (Hindi or English)

16. Translations of such communication shall be provided along with the communication where it is addressed to Offices in _______________. (Region C) 

17. Representations may be submitted by an employee in _______. (Hindi or English) 18. Representations, when made/signed in Hindi shall be replied to in _____. (Hindi)

19. Notings in Central Government Offices may be made by an employee in _______ and he ____ be required to furnish a translation of it. (Hindi or English, will not) 

20. If an employee has working knowledge of Hindi, he will not ask for English translation of a Hindi Document, unless it is of _________nature (legal/technical). 

21. Manuals, Codes, Forms, Notices etc., shall be printed or cyclostyled in _____________________ form. (Hindi & English Diglot) 

22. The forms and heading on registers shall be in ____________. (Hindi & English)

23. All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on envelopes and other stationery etc., shall be in ______________________. ( Hindi & English)

24. Responsibility to implement Official Language Rules is of ____. (Head of Office) 

(B) Descriptive:

 1. When an employee is deemed to possess proficiency in Hindi? 

2. When an employee is deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi?

 3. What are different steps taken by Railways to implement Hindi in official work?

4. What incentives are given for passing various Hindi Examinations? 

5 What are the incentives for use of Rajabhasha? 

6. Write salient Features of Official Language Act, 1963 as amended in 1976. 

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