Question paper for LDCE 30% examination for Gr B AEE
Maximum marks-100.
Total time: 2 hours.
Answer all 30 questions from part A, all 40 questions from part B and 30 questions out of 40 questions from part C. Every wrong answer will fetch negative marks (-1/3)
PART A (establishment & finance)
Q1. How many sets of PTO gazetted officer is entitled to in a year?
A)3
B)4
C)6
D)8
Q2.which Minor penalty imposition would necessarily require conducting inquiry?
A) withholding of increment for 3 years when the employee is retiring after 10 years
B) removal from service
C)withholding of increment for one year when employee is retiring after 10 years
D) All of the above
Q3. The punishment order of removal from service to a SSE can be signed by
A)Controlling officer not below senior scale without independent charge
B) controlling officer not below JAG or the appointing authority whichever is higher.
C) controlling officer not below SAG/ADRM
D)Personnel officer not below JAG/SrD PO
Q4.For conducting selection for 5 posts of SSE, normally how many candidates can be in the eligibility list?
A)5
B)15
C)30
D)50
Q5.UPSC Conducts recruitment for which posts in government of India?
A) group A only
B) group B only
C) Group C only
D) both a and b
Q6.when is it necessary to conduct inquiry in D&A case?
A) when major penalty charge sheet has been issued and employee accepted the charges
B) when major penalty charge sheet has been issued and employee did not accept the charge.
C) when minor penalty charge sheet has been issued
D) both a and b
Q7.OT is calculated for running staff based on working hours over how many days?
A)7
B)14
C)21
D)30
Q8. As per hours of employment regulation, chaukidar is classified as
A) continuous
B) intensive
C) essentially intermittent
D)excluded
Q9. Annual increment to railway employees is given every year on
A) 1st January
B) 1st January or 1st July
C) 1st July
D) date of joining of the employee.
Q10. Loco pilot is not eligible to get which of the following allowance?
A) TA
B) OT
C) running allowance
D) house rent allowance.
Q11. credit to staff benefit fund comes from
A) all receipts from fines
B)All receipts from forfeited provident fund bonus
C)all sundry earnings
D) both a and b
Q12. Frequency of pnm meetings at divisional level
A) should be once in a year
B) should be once every month
C) should not be more often than once in 2 months and less often than once in 4 months
D) can be decided by DRM
Q13. Estimate without involving power block work should have provision of D&G charges towards establishment
A)2%
B)8.5%
C)10.5%
D)19.5%
Q14.commutation of pension can be done upto a maximum of what percent?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%
Q15. demand numbers in Railway budget refer to
A) classification of of Expenditure in new line works
B) classification of Expenditure in revenue
C) classification of earnings
D) classification of Expenditure of salary of gazetted officers in Railway Board
Q16. plan head 16 relates to
A) works of new railway line
B) works of electrification
C) works of doubling
D) works of traffic facility
Q17. Primary unit 27 is meant for expenditure on
A) salary of employees
B) stock items
C) non stock items
D) contractual payments
Q18. Which of the following is not connected with audit?
A) draft para
B) audit note part 1
C) audit Inspection Report
D) general managers annual inspection report
Q19. which of the following is not a source of fund for investment in railways?
A) Mutual Fund
C) development fund-DF
B) depreciation reserve fund-DRF
D) capital
Q20.In a three member tender committee, sister department member means what?
A) member from accounts department
B) member from the department whose tender is under consideration
C) sister of the executive member
D) third member from other than accounts and executive
Q21. Normally works tender can be opened after minimum how many days from the date of publication of tender?
A) 21
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
Q22. Tender of civil engineering in which TC members are SrDEN(north), DEE(G), and DFM in Division, the tender acccepting member will be
A) Sr DEN (Co)
B) ADRM
C) PCE
D) all of the above
Q23, traction energy charges are booked in which sub minor head(old demand number)?
A)SMH03(Demand no 5C)
B)SMH 04(demand number 6D)
C)SMH 06(demand number 8F)
D)SMH 08( Demand number 10H)
Q24. stock sheet refers to
A) List of stock items
B) Requisition for stock items
C) shortage of material in stockholder's depot
D)Cost of stock items
Q25. Final approval for the budget of Indian Railways is given by
A) chairman Railway Board
B) finance Commissioner Railway Board
C) minister of Railways
D) parliament
Q26. Rate of return for project is required to be calculated if the work is funded in
A) DRF
B) DF
C) capital
D) none of the above.
Q27. Head of the accounts department in Indian Railways is
A) finance secretary to government of India
B) Finance Commissioner Railway Board
C) principal financial advisor
D) chairman Railway Board.
Q28. Performance guarantee Bond is taken from the contractor to ensure
A) the contractor maintains the assets after completion of the work
B) the contactor maintains good relationship with Railways.
C) the contractor executes the work as per contract conditions successfully without failure
D) none of the above
Q29. Transfer of fund from one work to another or one allocation to another is called
A) revised grant
B)final Grant
C) budget Grant
D) re-appropriation
Q30. Vetting of a requisition by account department means
A) checking correctness of specification
B) checking justification of rate
C) Checking justification of requirement
D) both B and C
PART B (Technical)
Q31.Which of the following is a drawback of load with low power factor?
A) transmission loss is more
B) required conductor size for carrying same load is more
C) causes underutilization of generation capacity of alternator
D) all of the above
Q32. Multimeter is used to measure
A) voltage
B) current
C) resistance
D) all of the above
Q33. electric traction load is normally
A) pure resistive
B) pure inductive
C) resistive and inductive
D) pure capacitive
Q34. Power line carrier communication uses which of the following medium?
A) microwave
B) Optical Fibre
C) high frequency electrical wave on transmisssion line
D) none of the above
Q35. slip in induction motor is
A) ratio of difference between synchronous speed and actual speed to the synchronous speed
B) Ratio of actual speed to synchronous speed
C) Ratio of synchronous speed to actual speed.
D) none of the above
Q36. What does a traction converter in three phase locomotive do?
A) converts DC supply to three phase AC supply
B) convert single phase AC Supply to DC and then three phase AC
C) convert DC supply to high voltage DC
D) converts AC supply to DC
Q37. What is load factor of a sub station?
A)Ratio of minimum voltage to maximum voltage
B) ratio of KWH to KVA
C)Ratio of energy consumed to energy transmitted
D) ratio of average load to maximum load
Q38. Which of the following is not a switching device ?
A) thyristor
B) GTO
C) IGBT
D) lightning arrester
Q39. Which of the following is not correct?
A) conductivity of copper decreases with increase in temperature
B) conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium
C) conductivity of silver is more than that of copper
D) graphite is an insulator.
Q40.Section jnsulator assembly is used for
A) separation of two elementary sections in OHE
B) Distinguish between two station sections
C)Insulate block section from the station
D) None Of the above
Q41. Recommended temperature setting in AC coaches in summer is
A)23 to 25 degree C
B)15 to 17 degree centigrade
C) 28 to 30 degree centigrade
D) none of the above
Q 42. in coaches the voltage in passenger area does not exceed
A)750 v
B)500 volt
C) 230 volt
D) 110 volt
Q43. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) an induction motor normally runs at a speed less than synchronous speed
B) an induction motor normally runs at synchronous speed
C) a synchronous motor normally runs at synchronous speed
D) all of the above
Q44. 60 kilowatt load is operating at 0.6 lag power factor.In order to make Unity power factor how much KVAR of capacitor bank is required to be added?
A) 100 KVAR
B) 75 kVAR
C) 80 kvar
D) 60 kvar
Q45. While doing Railway electrification works, LT lines along the platform parallel to track is normally made underground because
A) it improves aesthetics of the station
B) underground cabling is cheaper
C) voltage induced on the LT line becomes dangerous.
D) maintenance ofOHE becomes easier
Q46. BEE is an Organisation which is supposed to
A) decide tariff of electricity for consumers
B) decide electrical safety standards
C) formulate measures for electricity conservation and efficiency
D) act as appellate authority for disputes
Q47. W a g 9 locomotive has
A) six axle Co Co bogie
B) six axle BoBoBo Bogie
C) 4 axle BoBo bogie
D) six axle BoBo bogie
Q48. MHO or distance Protection relay uses which of the parameters for distinguishing between fault and load
A) based on current only
B) based on the impedance by using voltage and current
C) based on voltage only
D) based on Frequency only
Q49. Buchholz relay is used for
A) protection of of substation against lightning
B) protection of Transformer against excessive fault current
C) protection of transformer against internal fault through detection of generated gas
D) All of the above
Q50. Which of the following is not a name of ACSR conductor?
A) fish
B) zebra
C) spider
D) wolf
Q51. Normally Transformer oil is a
A) vegetable oil
B) cod liver oil
C) Mineral oil
D) fish oil
Q52. iron loss in a transformer is caused due to
A) hysteresis loss because of reversal of magnetic field
B) Eddy current loss
C) loss due to Leakage of oil in the iron body
D) both a and b
Q53. Traction motor used in WAP 4 locomotive is
A) DC series motor
B) three phase induction motor
C) three phase synchronous motor
D) none of the above.
Q54. Current carrying capacity of a conductor depends on
A) specific resistance of the conducting material and cross section area of the conductor
B) cross section area of the conductor and hardness of the conducting material
C) hardness of the conducting material and specific resistance of the conducting material
D) specific resistance of the conducting material and thermal coefficient of expansion
Q55. which of the following system of generation of electricity are Available in LHB coaches?
A) Only underslung battery
B) underslung alternators with battery for self generation
C) EOG power car
D) All of the above.
Q56. the nominal brake pipe pressure in IRAB system is
A) 3.5 kg
B) 5kg
C) 1 kg
D) 6 kg
Q57. which of the following system of braking is not available in WAG 9 locomotive?
A) rheostatic braking
B) pneumatic train brake
C) parking brake
D) regenerative brake
Q58. Which of the following does not come in the traction circuit of 3 phase locomotive?
A) power converter
B) OCB
C) traction motor
D) transformer
Q59. Maximum permissible combined earth resistance in a traction substation is
A) 0.5 ohm
B) 2 ohm
C) 5 ohm
D) 10 ohm
Q60. The components of protection system in any substation include
A) relays
B) circuit breakers
C) lightning arresters
D) All of the above
Q61. G-jumpers are used in OHE between
A) crossfeeder and OHE
B) catenary and contact wire
C) two OHEs in overlap
D) none of the above
Q62. What limits the tractive effort produced by a locomotive?
A) Weight of the locomotive and coefficient of adhesion between wheel and rail, at lower speeds.
B) horsepower of the locomotive, at Higher speeds
C) horsepower of the locomotive, at all speeds
D) both a and b
Q63.In Conventional locomotive QLM relay is used for protection against
A) Over voltage in the traction motor
B) overcurrent in power circuit
C) Wheel slip
D) undervoltage in OHE
Q64. The rated current carrying capacity of conventional OHE with 65 square mm copper cadmium catenary and 107 square mm copper contact wire is
A) 500A
B) 600A
C) 800A
D) 1100A
Q65. Which of the following is not a test for checking the health of transformer oil?
A) DGA
B) BDV
C) turns ratio test
D) acidity
Q66. Which of the following is not a protection system against internal fault in traction transformer?
A) WTI
B) Buchholz relay
C) Differential relay
D) restricted Earth fault relay
Q67. For Running trains at 110 kmph the pre-sag given in the contact wire is
A) 30mm
B) 100mm
C) 200mm
D) 250mm
Q68. Which of the following is a P type dopant for Silicon?
A) Phosphorus
B) arsenic
C) antimony
D) Boron
Q69. when the driver of a train applies A9 for braking, the braking force is given by
A) Only locomotive
B) only wagons of train
C) Locomotives and Wagon both
D) Sometimes locomotive and sometimes Wagon depending on gradient.
Q70.Which of the following is not correct?
A) in a train, application of A9 with PVEF pressed, causes brake application in wagons only.
B) In a train, application of SA9, causes brake application in locomotive only
C) In a train, application of A9, without PVEF pressed, causes brake Application in locomotive and Wagons
D)In a train, application of regenerative brake, causes braking force in Wagons only
Part C
(general knowledge)
Q71.Which of the following rivers does not pass through Odisha ?
A)Brahmani
B) baitarani
C) rushikulya
D) Hooghly
Q72. which major port is not located in eastern coast?
A) Kandla
B) Haldia
C) Dhamra
D) Gangavaram
Q73 Which of the following is not a state capital?
A) Shimla
B) Lucknow
C) Bhopal
D) Nagpur
Q74. Nelson Mandela was the president of which country?
A) Zimbabwe
B) Cuba
C) South Africa
D) Mozambique
Q75. Tamil Nadu receives its rainfall primarily from
A) Southwest monsoon
B) Northeast monsoon
C) North West monsoon
D) none of the above
Q76. Nobel Prize for economics was given to Shri Abhijit Banerjee for his work
A)market economy
B) poor economics
C) Bad economics
D)socialist economics
Q77. Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO?
A) China
B) USA
C) France
D) UK
Q78. Which of the following is the primary source of vitamin D?
A) water from river
B) leafy green vegetables
C) Sunlight
D)Red meat
Q79.refraction of light takes place
A) when light goes from transparent medium to Opaque medium
B) When light goes from one transparent medium to another transparent medium of different index.
C) When light meets black surface
D) all of the above
Q80.floating of vessel in sea water is explained by
A) Newton's Law of gravitation
B) Newton's laws of motion
C) Archimedes principle
D) Bernoulli's law
Q81, which of the following is a radioactive material?
A) potassium
B) magnesium
C) Calcium
D) Thorium
Q82. who amongst the following is not badminton player?
A)Sania Mirza
B) Saina Nehwal
C) PV Sindhu
D) Prakash Padukone
Q83. Diego Maradona was a famous player of which game?
A) badminton
B) hockey
C) football
D) cricket
Q84.Pearl Harbour became famous during
A) Football World Cup
B) world war 2
C) World War 1
D) Vietnam War
Q85. Who among the following was not a British prime minister?
A) Winston Churchill
B) Margaret Thatcher
C) Ronald Reagan
D) Theresa May
Q86. Artificial intelligence is
A) intelligence displayed by computers that mimic cognitive functions of human brain like learning and problem solving
B)Artificially planted components inside human brain
C)Human brain which is augmented to achieve more intelligent functions
D) Artificial robot.
Q87. Transmission of of heat energy through air medium takes place by
A) conduction
B) convection
C) radiation
D) both A and B
Q88. Which of the following is not essentially required for photosynthesis?
A)water
B) sunlight
C) chlorophyll
D) oxygen
Q89.which Of the following gases constitutes maximum percentage in atmospheric air?
A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide
C) nitrogen
D) hydrogen
Q90. heavy water is used in
A) cooling air conditioners
C) moderator in nuclear reactor
B) electrolyte of batteries
D) mineral water
Q91. Which is not correct about graphite?
A) it is made of pure carbon
C) it is a good conductor of electricity
B) it is a metal
D) it is Used As a lubricant.
Q92. In India the highest percentage of source of electricity generation is from
A) nuclear power
B) hydroelectricity
C) solar plants
D) thermal plants(coal)
Q93.MNREGA is a flagship programme of Government of India whose purpose is to
A) provide health care to all
B) provide insurance to all
C) provide employment to all
D) provide education to all
Q94. If an Object absorbs All the electromagnetic radiation of visible spectrum that falls on it, then the colour of it looks
A) red
B) green
C) white
D) black
Q95.Constitutional objectives of building an egalitarian Social order and establishing welfare state are laid down in which part of the constitution of India?
A) fundamental rights
B) fundamental duties
C) directive principles of State Policy
D) chapter on citizenship
Q96, to whom does constitution of India provide authority to enact law?
A) Supreme Court
B) government
C) parliament
D) Cabinet Secretary
Q97.Member countries of OPEC Are
A) having surplus petroleum oil and export them
B) having military alliance amongst themselves
C) having preferential trade Cooperation Among them.
D) having permanent members in United Nations Security Council.
Q98. International Court of Justice is located at
A) Geneva
B) the Hague
C) New York
D) Paris
Q99. The capital of Norway is located at
A) Copenhagen
B) Stockholm
C) Helsinki
D) Osio.
Q100. Which of the following is not true about regional comprehensive economic partnership(RCEP)
A)lt attempts to establish world's largest free trade bloc with 16 countries
B) India opted out for fear of surge in Chinese imports
C) Its members Included China, Vietnam, Thailand among others.
D) China committed to not to erect non tariff barriers
Q101.as per Rajbhasha Rules in which region of States, Odisha is classified?
A) Region A
B) region b
C) Region C
D) Region D
Q102.TOLIC Can be formed in
A) towns with more than 10 central government offices
B) state capitals
C) district headquarters
D) A class cities
Q103. Which of the following is not correct in regard to rajbhasha rule?
A) an employee can be punished if he does not have working knowledge in Hindi
B) tender documents should be in both Hindi and English
C) if a letter is received in Hindi from A region the reply should be given in Hindi
D) Name boards should be both in Hindi and English.
Q104. An employee is supposed to have acquired working knowledge in Hindi if(give most appropriate answer)
A) he has passed matriculation with Hindi as one subject
B) he has passed Pragya
C) he has declared himself to be having working knowledge in Hindi
D) any one of the above
Q105. When was the present parliamentary committee on rajbhasha constituted?
A)1963
B)1947
C)1956
D)1976
Q106.Andaman and Nicobar Islands is in which region as per rajbhasha rules?
A) region A
B) region B
C) region C
D) region D
Q107. which Foreign language has found place in eighth schedule of the constitution?
A) English
B) Arabic
C) Chinese
D) Nepali
Q108. How many members are there in the parliamentary committee on official language?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)15
Q109.Which ministry prepare the annual program on official language?
A) ministry of Railways
B) Ministry of HRD
C) Ministry of Home Affairs
D) Ministry of parliamentary affairs.
Q110.Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for clerical employees in Indian Railways?
A)Prabodh
B) Pragya
C) Praveen
D) Parangat
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