Written Examination for selection to the post of Staff & Welfare Inspector in Level- 06, of Pay Matrix of 7th CPC (PB-2 with GP Rs.4200/-) under HQ Unit against 35% Quota through General Selection from all Departments.
Time: 03.00 hrs.
Date: 14.07.2018 Venue: CPO's Office Full Marks: 100
Instructions:
- Read the instruction carefully as given in the Answer Book
- Answer may be given either in English or in Hindi (no mixing up)
- Do not write your name /Roll No. or put your signature anywhere in the Answer Script except in the space provided for, on the Top-sheet of the Answer Script
- Do not write answer on the reverse side of the Top-Sheet of the Answer Script Use of unfair means in any form or disclosure of identity will not only lead to cancellation of candidature, may also invite DAR action.
- Marks have been indicated in the margin of right side of each question.
- Do not use Mobile Phone during examination
- No cutting, erasing, and overwriting is permitted for objective type questions, if found, the same shall not be evaluated
- Use only one colour ink either blue or black. No colour pens highlighter/pens to be used,
Part-A
(Attempt any five questions)
1) What is meant by Surplus staff? What are the rules governing absorption and seniority of surplus staff in alternative post (Marks- 10)
2) What are the important features of Article 311 of the Constitution with reference to DA rules? What are the various major and minor penalties under DA rules? (Marks-10)
3) Explain the procedure for conducting "General selection" within Group 'C' covering the following aspects-
a) Assessment of Vacancies (Marks-2.5)
b) Constitution of Selection Board (Marks-2.5)
c) Awarding of Marks (Marks-2.5)
d) Approval of the results (panel) and amendment of the same if any (Marks-2.5)
4) What is Apprentices Act, 1961? How is it being implemented on Eastern Railways? (Marks-10)
5) Write short notes on the following:- (Marks-2 X 5-10)
a) Presenting officer
b) Vacancy Bank
c) Paternity Leave
d) NBR (Next Below Rule)
e) Benchmarking
6) Explain the following: (Marks-2 X 5-10)
(a) HBA
(b) Statutory Canteen
(c) Child Care Leave
(d) Selection Calendar
(e) Project Saksham
7) (a) As a Welfare Inspector how would you promote use of Rajbhasa? (Marks-4)
(b) What are the various monetary and non-mionetary incentives to promote Rajbhasa in Railways (Mark-4)
(c) What do you mean by "Notified Office" in relation to Rajbhasa. (Marks-2)
8) What do you understand by "Grievance"? What are the various systems/ forums available on Eastern Railway for redressing staff grievances? (Marks-10)
Part-B
(All questions are compulsory)
Q No.1. Match the following: (Marks-10)
Column- A
i) IRIMEE
ii) IRISET
iii) IRICEN
iv) IRIEEN
v) IRITM
vi) Diesel Loco Modernization Works
vii) Rail Coach Factory
viii) Rail Wheel Factory
ix) Diesel Locomotive Works
x)Integral Coach Factory
Column-B
(a) Lucknow
(b) Pune
(c) Secunderabd
(d) Jamalpur
(e) Nasik
(f) Chennai
(g) Varanasi
(h) Patiala
(i) Kapurthala
(j) Yelahanka
Q No.2. Fill in the blanks:- (Marks-15)
a) Interest on delayed payment of Gratuity can be sanctioned by .................
b) RDSO is situated at ..................
c) Quarter may be retained by Railway Servant on Superannuation for a period of ......... months on payment of normal rent.
d) Fixed medical Allowance payable to eligible retired Railway employee as on 1.1.18 is ..........
e) Alteration in Date of Birth recorded on 1 page of Service Record requires the approval of ..........
f) Percentage of Reservation provided for Visually handicapped in Group D (erstwhile) GP Rs 1800/- open market recruitment is .........
g) ........... years probation period is prescribed for all persons recruited against sports quota.
h) ...........% of temporary status casual labour service on absorption in regular employment may be taken into account for grant of benefit under MACP scheme.
i) .......... % of the money value of all the posts surrendered in Zonal Railway(Divisions, Workshops, extra Divisional units) shall be transferred to Railway Board's Vacancy Bank.
j) There are ............ Zonal Railways.
k) Minimum Family pension as on 1.1.18 is ..................
1) An employee 's APAR can be filled by his Supervisory Authority only if he has worked under him for a minimum period of ..............
m) Time limit within which the reply is to be given to applicant under RTI Act is ..........
n) SF ........... is used for appointment of Enquiry Officer in a major penalty case.
o
0) ............ is the Chairman of SBF at Zonal level.
Q No. 3. State whether the following statements are "True" or "False": (Marks-15)
a) In the case of a Railway employee under suspension no PF subscription shall be recovered from subsistence allowance.
b) Non Practicing allowance is taken into account for the purpose of commutation of
retirement benefits.
c) Provident fund is governed by Provident Fund Act 1935.
d) The maximum age limit for appearing in the GDCE is 40 yrs for general category candidates.
e) DRMs can create safety category post for new assets from vacancy bank.
f) The quota of reservation for direct recruitment of Ex-Servicemen is 20% of the vacancies for Group C posts (GP Rs 1900/- and above).
g) Central Staff Benefit fund is formed by monthly subscription from employees
h) Prescribed medical fitness for Welfare Inspector is B-1 medical category.
i) PREM meeting in Eastern Railway is conducted by PCPO.
j) The age limit for sports quota recruitment through open advertisement is 18-25 years.
k) Censure is a penalty under D&A Rule 1968.
1) The Upper age relaxation for Physically Handicapped persons in Group D (Rs 1800/-GP) recruitment is 15 years above the prescribed upper age limit.
m) Railway School teachers are not eligible to get LAP.
n) NPS has been introduced w.e.f.1.1.06
o) Dependent Divorced daughter can be considered for appointment on compassionate grounds.
Q No. 4. Expand the following:- (Marks- 10)
a) PFA
b) IREC
c) UPSC
d) AEBAS
e) IRCON
1) RITES
g) COFMOW
h) NIC
i) DFCCIL
j) RLDA
No comments:
Post a Comment