Question Bank for 25% Departmental Quota STATION MASTER

Question Bank for 25% Departmental Quota ASM’s 

Q.1 Define the following.
 a) Station Master.
 b) Authority to Proceed.
 c) Running Line.

 Q2. Write the following.

 a) Classification of stations.
 b) Fouling Mark.
 c) Isolation.

Q3. Explain various types of signals by way of flow chart.

Q4. Briefly explain Hand signals.

Q5. What is Detonator? Explain Fog Protection.

Q6. What is procedure for working of trains when Reception Signals are defective.

 Q7. Explain how trains are worked during Departure Signals fails.

 Q8. Write the differences between.

a. Calling ‘on’ Signal and Shunt Signal.
b. General Rules and Subsidiary Rule.

Q9. What is Interlocking, Kinds of Interlocking, Speeds over Main line facing Points and its Essentials?

 Q10. What is Isolation? Explain various methods used for Isolation.

Q11. What is System of Working? How many Systems of Working are there on Indian Railways? What Systems of Workings are in force in SCR.

Q12. What action is to be taken when Hot Axle/ Flat tyre is noticed.

Q13. What is All Right Signal. What are the things to be observed while exchanging all right signals?
Q14. What is to be done in the following cases. (a) Fire on train. (b) Patrolman not turned up in time.

Q15. How trains are to dealt in the following cases.

 (a) Keyman reports Rail facture.

 (b) Lurch/Jerk reported by loco pilot.

Q16. Briefly Explain Stabling and Securing of a train at a Station.

Q17. Briefly Explain Fouling Mark and its Clearance.

Q18. What is Shunting? Write some important Shunting Precautions.

Q19. What is Shunting? Shunting Authorities.

Q20. How trains are worked during TSL working.

Q21. What are Safety Equipments and Registers provided at LC Gates.

Q22. Duties of Station Master in case of an accident to a Passenger Train.

Q23. What are the Passenger Amenities Provided at a Major Station.

Q24. What is the Official Language of India? What are the Salient features of 1967 Act.

Q25. What is the Official Language of India? Explain 1976 Official Language Rules.

Q26. How many Zones are there in Indian Railways? Write them with their Head Quarters.

 Q27.What is Caution Order and write circumstances under which caution order is given.

 Q28. How trains are admitted. a) on obstructed line. b) un-signaled line.

 Q29. To whom Railway servant (Discipline & Appeal) Rules, 1968 applicable and whom they are not applicable.

 Q30. When a Railway servant may be placed under suspension.


 1. Approved special instruction are issued by ______ (CRS) (Commissioner of Railway Safety)

2. Special instruction is issued by ________________. (Authorized Officer)

3. Authorized Officer of SC Railway is ____________. (COM) (Chief Operations Manager)

4. Authority to proceed on double line ___________. (Taking of Last Stop signal)

5. When block instrument is defective the authority to proceed is __________. (Paper Line Clear Ticket) (PLCT) (UP. T/C1425 & Down. T/D1425).

6. PLCT number for Up direction is______(T/C1425) and for Down direction is ______.(T/D1425)

7. The distance between Home signal and BSLB shall not be less than ________. (180 meters)

8. When Trap point is open trap indicator shows __________(Red target) by day and ________ (Red light) by night.

 9. When Trap point is set, trap indicator shows ___________(Knife Edge/Green Target) by day and __________ (Green light) by night.

 10. Station limits are available between __________ (Two outer most signals) at block station.

 11. On double line Multiple Aspect Signalling (MAS) signalling station, station section lies between _____ (Outer most facing points /BSLB) and _____( LSS) (Last Stop Signal) on either direction.

 12. Station section is available only in __________________ (Class B) stations.

13. No Railway servant directly connected with working of trains shall not consum any alcoholic drink within _____________ (Eight) hours before commencement of duty.

 14. A train which started with proper ATP and has not completed its journey is called _________. (Running Train)

15. The lines which are protected by fixed signals at a Block station are called ___________. (Running lines)

16. A fixed stop signal of a Block station which controls the entry of trains into next Block section is called _________.(LSS) (Last Stop Signal)

17. Starter signal protects _________ (Points) and ___________. (Fouling mark)

18. Advance starter protects __________. (Block Section)

19. Advance starter ‘OFF’ position is interlocked with _________. (Block instrument)

20. Normal aspect of stop signals except in Automatic section is ________. (Most restrictive aspect/stop)

21. Calling - on signal shows ________ (No light) in ‘On’ position.

22. Calling - on signal shows ________ (Miniature yellow light) in ‘OFF’ position.

23. Colour light Calling - on signal is identified by _________ (“C”) marker board.

24. Calling - on signal is used for __________(receiving a train on obstructed line) and ____________________. (When stop signal above is defective).

25. Shunt signal protects __________________. (Points)

26. When shunt signal becomes defective ____________ (T.369 (3b) +Proceed Hand Signal at the foot of defective signal) is the authority to pass at ‘on’ position.

27. Shunting order form no ____________. (T.806)

28. Details working instruction about shunting permitted indicators is available in ___________. (Station Working Rules) (SWR)

 29. When Shunting Permitted Indicator (SPI) is defective __________ (T.369(3b) +Proceed Hand Signal at the foot of defective SPI) is the authority to pass it in ‘on’ position.

30. Outlying siding points are indicated by __________ (“S”) mark boards.

31. Detailed working instruction about outlying sidings is incorporated in _________. (Station Working Rules) (SWR)

 32. A signal which is taken ‘OFF’ for a train will be put back to ‘on’ position only in emergency ___________(to avoid an Accident) or when information about ___________ (relief engine) is received.

33. Normal setting of points shall be always to ______________. (Straight line/Main line)

 34. On single line after the arrival of the stopping train the point in _______(rear) and ______ (front) shall be set against the ___________.(Blocked line)

35. On Double Line after the arrival of the stopping train the points in __________ (rear) will be set against the _______________.(Blocked line)

36. To receive a stopping train on loop line having sand hump or buffer stop the points must be set for _____________________. (sand hump or buffer stop)

37. ______(outer), ______(Home) and ___________(LSS) (Last Stop Signal) are prohibited to be used for shunting.

38. Waving a white light horizontally across the body of a person violently indicates ______ (stop)

39. Detonators are also known as ______ (Fog Signals/Audible)

40. Visibility Test Object (VTO) is painted with ____________ (Self luminous Yellow paint) and placed at a distant of _________ (180 meters) from ______________.(SM’s Office)

41. Fog Signal Post is painted with ______(Self luminous Yellow & Black Stripes) and placed at a distance of_________ (270 meters) from ______(First Stop Signal) (FSS)

42. Normal life of Detonators supplied before 2010 is _______ (7 years) can be extended for _________ (3 years) testing every year.

 43. Normal life of Detonators supplied after 2010 is _________ (5 years) can be extended for _________ (3 years) after testing every year.

 44. Fog signal men’s assurance will be taken in ________ (Fog signal register) by SM once in _________( 3 months).

 45. Whenever a signal detecting points becomes defective the concerned points are to treated as __________________ (Non-Interlocked/defective)

46. When Home signal becomes defective Pre - warning memo number ____ (T- 369(1)) is given by ______________.(Rear SM)

 47. Authority to pass defective reception stop signal at ‘On’ position is ________. (T- 369(3b) or T-369(1) + Proceed Hand signal at the foot of defective signal)

48. When IB is defective _________ (PLCT +T-369(3b)) is the authority to start the train.

49. Signal warning board is located ______(1400 meters) from ________(First Stop Signal)

50. When there is no response from gateman, SM shall stop the train and issue _________ (Caution order).

 51. Light engines or couple light engines shall have ________ (LV) by day _______ (Tail Lamp) by night.

 52. Fresh BPC is required when ever _____ (10 units/4 Wagons) or more vehicles attached or detached.

55. When CC rake is stabled for more than ______ (24 hours) fresh BPC is equired.

56. When SM/Station staff does not exchange All right signals the driver will give _________ (two short) engine whistle code.

57. Even though First Stop Signal (FSS) is ‘Off’ position if, Loco Pilot stops his train FSS and gives long short, long short engine whistle indicates __________. (Train arrived incomplete)

58. Two short , One long engine whistle indicates________(In sufficient Air pressure or Alarm chain pulled)

59. In a token less section SM shall arrange to show all right signal for run through train from __________. (off side) 60. While stabling a material train at a station the responsibility lies with the ______________. (SM and Guard)

 61 Whenever BPC is invalid or while clearing a stable load before starting _____________ (GLP) (Guard, Loco Pilot)check shall be conducted for which _________ (30 seconds) time is given for one four wheeler unit.

 62. Divisional caution order number is _____________. (T-409)

 63. While backing a full train from one line to another via mainline the shunting is to supervised by __________(on duty SM)

 64. Shunting is controlled by __________ (Fixed signals) ___________ (Hand signals) and On _______________. (verbal instructions)

 65. Normal speed of shunting is _________________. (15 KMPH)

 66. Shunting speed of oil tanks is ________________. (08 KMPH)

 67. Maximum speed of hand shunting is ___________. (05 KMPH)

 68. Authority for sending light engine into a blocked line___________. (T/A- 602)

 69. Authority for despatching a train during Temporary Single Line working on double is _____________. (T/D-602)

 70. Block ticket No is ____________. (T/J-602)

 71. If a Passenger train does not turns up even after normal running time and _____ (10 minutes) Station Master shall to send ________________.(search party)

 72. If a Goods Train does not turns up even after normal running time and______ (20 minutes) Station Master shall to send __________________.(search party)

 73. Semi automatic signal will have _________________. (Illuminated ‘A’ marker)

 74. In Automatic section when Advance starter/LSS becomes defective ____________ (T-369(3b) + caution order 10 KMPH) authority for loco pilot to pass signal at ‘ON’ position.

 75. During prolonged failure of signals in automatic section on double line the authority is __________________. (T/D 902)

76. If patrol man does not turn up even after ________ (15 minutes) beyond the schedule arrival time, SM shall stop all the trains and issue Caution order restricting the speed to _________. (40 KMPH) 

77. G&SR means for ___________. (General and Subsidiary Rules)

78. MPS means for ___________. (Maximum Permissible speed)

79. SWR means for ________________. (Station working Rules)

 80. TSR stands for _____________________. (Train signal Register)

 81. Super Fast Trains are monitored by ____________. (Railway Board)

 82. The Normal Aspect of Automatic Stop Signal is ________.(Proceed)

 83. The MPS Between SC-KZJ is ___________. (120 KMPH)

84. The Section between SC-LPI Is ___________.(Automatic Block section)

85. The MPS Between VKB - PRLI is ___________. (90 KMPH)

86. SC railway formed on ________________. (2nd October 1966)

87. First Railway line was laid between__________ (Mumbai) and ________ (Thane) on _____________.(16.04.1853)

88. Railway Minister is _________________.

89. Minister of State for Railways_______________.

90. Chairman Railway Board _______________.

91. Member Traffic ___________________.

92. General Manager of .......________________

93. RDSO Head Quarters _________________. (Luknow)

94. CCRS Head Quarters ________________________. (Luknow)

95. Railway Board Head Quarters ________________. (New Delhi)

96. Capital of Independent India __________________. (New Delhi)

97. President of India __________________.

98. Prime Minister of India ______________.

99.Vice-President of India is ____________.

100. Chief Minister of your State ______________.

101. COM of your  railway___________________.

102. CSO of your  railway _______________.

103. CTM(G)&PP of your  railway_______________.

104. DRM of your  division _______________

105. Sr.DOM of your  division ____________

106. Sr.DPO of your  division ____________.

107. CFTM of your  Railway ______________.

108. CPTM of your  Railway ______________.

109. CTPM of your  Railway________________.

110. CPRO of your  Railway _________________.

111. Mahatma Gandhi was born on __________ (02.10.1869)  at______ (Porbundar) in ___ (Gujarat)

112. Speaker of Lok Sabha _____________

 Expand The Following 

1. TSR                                                                           (Train Signal Register )

2. MMTS                                                                      (Multi Modal Transport System)

3. ZRTI                                                                         ( Zonal Railway Training Institute)

4. POET                                                                       (Passenger Operated Enquiry Terminal)

5. IVRS                                                                        (Interactive Voice Response System)

6. COIS                                                                        (Coaching Operations Information system)

7. FOIS                                                                        (Freight operations Information System)

8. ACD                                                                        (Anti Collision Device)

9. IRCTC                                                       (Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Ltd.,)

10. MEMU                                                                 (Main Electrical Multiple Unit)

11. DHMU                                                                 (Diesel Hydraulic Multiple Unit)

12. IRISET                            (Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunication)

13. RDSO                                                                   (Research Design and Standards Organization)

14. CRIS                                                                     (Centre for Railway Information System)

15. RCT                                                                      (Railway Claims Tribunal)

16. LVCD                                                                   (Last Vehicle Check Device)

17. FRED                                                                     (Flashing Rear End Device)

18. CRS                                                                       (Commissioner of Railway Safety)

19. SCOR                                                                     (Section Controller)

20. COM                                                                       (Chief Operations Manager)

21. PLCT                                                                      (Paper Line Clear Ticket)

22. ART                                                                       (Accident Relief Train)

23. MRV                                                                       (Medical Relief Van)

24. SPAD                                                                     (Signal Passing at Danger)

25. NTES                                                                     (National Trains Enquiry System)

26. BPAC                                                                      (Block Proving Axle Counter)

27. IBS                                                                          (Intermediate Block Signal)


1. Tail lamp and LV board is not provided when Light Engine or Coupled Light Engines on run. (False)

2. Train arriving with Hot Axle as far as possible is to be admitted on main line. (True)

3. Motor Trolley is permitted into section without Line Clear. (False)

4. BSLB is provided in MAS double line when required. (True)

5. SLB is provided on all Single line Block stations. (False)

6. T-806 is an authority to pass defective stop signal at ‘ON’ position. (False)

7. Semi Automatic signal is provided with illuminated ‘A’ marker. (True)

8. Train running without guard with Tail Lamp can be given through during Night time. (True)

9. A white light by night or Green flag by day moved UP and Down indicates train parting. (True)

10. Shunt signal can be taken ‘OFF’ for dispatching a Train (False).

11. Fort Night Gazette is issued once a month. (False)

12. Passenger carriages in order to save time and detention may be loose shunted. (False)

13. All permanent speed restrictions imposed are incorporated in WTT. (False)

14. Colour Light Home signal will have ‘P’ marker board. (False)

15. Calling-on signal can be taken off for admitting a train on obstructed line. (True)

16. FSP is placed 270 meters from outer most signal. (False)

17. T/J-602 is an authority given during TFC on Double Line. (False)

18. T/J-602 is a Block Ticket. (True)

19. At Road side station Shunting is supervised by Guard. (True)

20. Shunt signal can be placed below FSS. (False)

21. Banner type Repeating signal shows Yellow light in ‘ON’ position during night. (False)

22. T-1425 is the authority for working trains on paper line clear ticket. (True)

23. VTO is placed at 180 meters from SM’s office. (True)

24. Out laying siding points are indicated by ‘S’ marker board. (True)

25. Signal sighting committee will go on foot plate inspection once in 3 months. (True)

Personnel (Discipline & Appeal) Objective Question and Answers. 

1. The Railway servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules came into force on _______ (01.10.1968)

2. __________ (SF-1) form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension.

3. __________ (SF-4) form is used for revocation of suspension.

4. ____________ (SF-11) form is used for imposition of minor penalty. 

5. _____________ (SF-5)form is used for imposition of major penalty.

6. _____________ (SF-7) form is used for nomination of Inquiry Officer .

7.___________ (SF-8)form is used to appoint a presenting officer.

8. Substance allowance is equal to leave salary, which the employee would have drawn had he been on __________.(Leave Average Half Pay)

9. No appeal shall be entertained unless preferring within _____ (45) days.

10. Rule 25 A of the Railway Servant (D&A) Rules deals with ___________.(Revisional Review)

11. What is the time limit for submission of written statement of defence by the delinquent Railway servant _________. (10 days)

12. Rule no. _______ (12) of Railway Servant (D&A) rules, 1968 deals with communication of orders to Railway servants.

13. Schedule III of Railway Servant (D&A) rules,1968 deals with __________.(Disciplinary Power in respect of Gazetted Officer)

14. A trade union official can act as __________ (Defence Counsel) in a DAR case.


 1. Suspension a penalty under D& A Rules, 1968.                                                          (FALSE)

 2. A retired Railway employee can act as a defence helper                                             (TRUE)

 3. Termination of a employee on reduction of establishment is a penalty under D&A Rules,1968                                                                                                                                         (TRUE or FALSE). 

4. The defence helper should be from the same Railway as that of the delinquent employee   (TRUE).

5. Withholding of increments for failure to pass any departmental examination is not a penalty under D&A rules,1968.                                                                                                                     (FALSE).

6. Appeal lies against the order of suspension                                                                         (TRUE).

7. A legal practioner can act as a defence assistant.                                                                 (TRUE).

8. Inquiry is not required to be held in case of DAR proceedings for minor penalty.              (TRUE).